21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章

发布时间:2021-08-21
21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章

21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第1章


5 Astrodome Sports Ltd was formed in December 2000 by seven engineers who comprise the board of directors of the

company. The seven engineers previously worked together for ‘Telstar’, a satellite navigation company.

In conjunction with one of the three largest construction companies within their country they constructed the ‘365

Sports Complex’ which has a roof that opens and uses revolutionary satellite technology to maintain grass surfaces

within the complex. The complex facilities, which are available for use on each day of the year, include two tennis

courts, a cricket pitch, an equestrian centre and six bowling greens. The tennis courts and cricket pitch are suitable

for use as venues for national competitions. The equestrian centre offers horse-riding lessons to the general public and

is also a suitable venue for show-jumping competitions. The equestrian centre and bowling greens have increased in

popularity as a consequence of regular television coverage of equestrian and bowling events.

In spite of the high standard of the grass surfaces within the sports complex, the directors are concerned by reduced

profit levels as a consequence of both falling revenues and increasing costs. The area in which the ‘365 Sports

Complex’ is located has high unemployment but is served by all public transport services.

The directors of Astrodome Sports Ltd have different views about the course of action that should be taken to provide

a strategy for the future improvement in the performance of the complex. Each director’s view is based on his/her

individual perception as to the interpretation of the information contained in the performance measurement system of

the complex. These are as follows:

Director

(a) ‘There is no point whatsoever in encouraging staff to focus on interaction with customers in efforts to create a

‘user friendly’ environment. What we need is to maintain the quality of our grass surfaces at all costs since that

is the distinguishing feature of our business.’

(b) ‘Buy more equipment which can be hired out to users of our facilities. This will improve our utilisation ratios

which will lead to increased profits.’

(c) ‘We should focus our attention on maximising the opening hours of our facilities. Everything else will take care

of itself.’

(d) ‘Recent analysis of customer feedback forms indicates that most of our customers are satisfied with the facilities.

In fact, the only complaints are from three customers – the LCA University which uses the cricket pitch for

matches, the National Youth Training Academy which held training sessions on the tennis courts, and a local

bowling team.’

(e) ‘We should reduce the buildings maintenance budget by 25% and spend the money on increased advertising of

our facilities which will surely attract more customers.’

(f) ‘We should hold back on our efforts to overcome the shortage of bowling equipment for hire. Recent rumours are

that the National Bowling Association is likely to offer large financial grants next year to sports complexes who

can show they have a demand for the sport but have deficiencies in availability of equipment.’

(g) ‘Why change our performance management system? Our current areas of focus provide us with all the

information we need to ensure that we remain a profitable and effective business.’

As management accountant of Astrodome Sports Ltd you have recently read an article which discussed the following

performance measurement problems:

(i) Tunnel vision

(ii) Sub-optimisation

(iii) Misinterpretation

(iv) Myopia

(v) Measure fixation

(vi) Misrepresentation

(vii) Gaming

(viii) Ossification.

Required:

(a) Explain FOUR of the above-mentioned performance measurement problems (i-viii) and discuss which of the

views of the directors (a-g) illustrate its application in each case. (12 marks)

正确答案:
(a) Candidates may choose FOUR problems with performance measures from those listed below:
Tunnel vision may be seen as undue focus on performance measures to the detriment of other areas. For example ‘There is
no point whatsoever in encouraging staff to focus on interaction with customers in efforts to create a ‘user friendly’
environment. What we need is to maintain the quality of our grass surfaces at all costs since that is the distinguishing feature
of our business.’
Sub-optimisation may occur where undue focus on some objectives will leave others not achieved. For example, ‘We should
focus our attention upon maximising the opening hours of our facilities. Everything else will take care of itself.’ This strategy
ignores the importance of a number of other issues, such as the possible need to increase the availability of horse-riding and
bowling equipment for hire.
Misinterpretation involves failure to recognise the complexity of the environment in which the organisation operates.
Management views have focused on a number of performance measures such as ‘spend the money on increased advertising
of our facilities which will surely attract more customers.’ This fails to recognise the more complex problems that exist. The
town is suffering from high unemployment which may cause population drift and economic decline. This will negate many
of the initiatives that are being suggested by management. This may to some extent be offset by the good transport links to
the ‘365 sports complex’.
Myopia refers to short-sightedness leading to the neglect of longer-term objectives. An example would be ‘We should reduce
the buildings maintenance budget by 25% and spend the money on increased advertising of our facilities which will surely
attract more customers.’
Measure fixation implies behaviour and activities in order to achieve specific performance indicators which may not be
effective. For example, ‘Buy more equipment which can be hired out to users of our facilities. This will improve our utilisation
ratios which will lead to increased profits.’ Problems of unemployment and lack of complaints from customers may mean that
more equipment will not improve profit levels.
Misrepresentation refers to the tendency to indulge in ‘creative’ reporting in order to suggest that a performance measure
result is acceptable. For example ‘Recent analysis of customer feedback forms indicate that most of our customers are satisfied
with the facilities. In fact, the only complaints are from three customers – the LCA University who use the cricket pitch for
matches, the National Youth Training Academy who hold training sessions on the tennis courts, and a local bowling team.’
This ignores the likely size of capacity share occupied by these three customers. In this regard it should be acknowledged
that complaints represent a significant threat to the business since ‘bad news often travels fast’ and other customers may then
‘vote with their feet’.
Gaming is where there is a deliberate distortion of the measure in order to secure some strategic advantage. This may involve
deliberately under performing in order to achieve some objective. For example, ‘We should hold back on our efforts to
overcome the shortage of bowling equipment for hire. Recent rumours are that the National Bowling Association are likely to
offer large financial grants next year to sports complexes who can show they have a demand for the sport but have deficiencies
in availability of equipment.’
Ossification which by definition means ‘a hardening’ refers to an unwillingness to change the performance measure scheme
once it has been set up. An example could be ‘Why change our performance management system? Our current areas of focus
provide us with all the information that we need to ensure that we remain a profitable and effective business.’ This ignores
issues/problems raised in the other comments provided in the question.


This scenario summarises the development of a company called Rock Bottom through three phases, from its founding in 1965 to 2008 when it ceased trading.

Phase 1 (1965–1988)

In 1965 customers usually purchased branded electrical goods, largely produced by well-established domestic companies, from general stores that stocked a wide range of household products. However, in that year, a recent university graduate, Rick Hein, established his first shop specialising solely in the sale of electrical goods. In contrast to the general stores, Rick Hein’s shop predominantly sold imported Japanese products which were smaller, more reliable and more sophisticated than the products of domestic competitors. Rick Hein quickly established a chain of shops, staffed by young people who understood the capabilities of the products they were selling. He backed this up with national advertising in the press, an innovation at the time for such a specialist shop. He branded his shops as ‘Rock Bottom’, a name which specifically referred to his cheap prices, but also alluded to the growing importance of

rock music and its influence on product sales. In 1969, 80% of sales were of music centres, turntables, amplifiers and speakers, bought by the newly affluent young. Rock Bottom began increasingly to specialise in selling audio equipment.

Hein also developed a high public profile. He dressed unconventionally and performed a number of outrageous stunts that publicised his company. He also encouraged the managers of his stores to be equally outrageous. He rewarded their individuality with high salaries, generous bonus schemes and autonomy. Many of the shops were extremely successful, making their managers (and some of their staff) relatively wealthy people.

However, by 1980 the profitability of the Rock Bottom shops began to decline significantly. Direct competitors using a similar approach had emerged, including specialist sections in the large general stores that had initially failed to react to the challenge of Rock Bottom. The buying public now expected its electrical products to be cheap and reliable.

Hein himself became less flamboyant and toned down his appearance and actions to satisfy the banks who were becoming an increasingly important source of the finance required to expand and support his chain of shops.

Phase 2 (1989–2002)

In 1988 Hein considered changing the Rock Bottom shops into a franchise, inviting managers to buy their own shops (which at this time were still profitable) and pursuing expansion though opening new shops with franchisees from outside the company. However, instead, he floated the company on the country’s stock exchange. He used some of the capital raised to expand the business. However, he also sold shares to help him throw the ‘party of a lifetime’ and to purchase expensive goods and gifts for his family. Hein became Chairman and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the newly quoted company, but over the next thirteen years his relationship with his board and shareholders became increasingly difficult. Gradually new financial controls and reporting systems were put in place. Most of the established managers left as controls became more centralised and formal. The company’s performance was solid but unspectacular. Hein complained that ‘business was not fun any more’. The company was legally required to publish directors’ salaries in its annual report and the generous salary package enjoyed by the Chairman and CEO increasingly became an issue and it dominated the 2002 Annual General Meeting (AGM). Hein was embarrassed by its publication and the discussion it led to in the national media. He felt that it was an infringement of his privacy and

civil liberties.

Phase 3 (2003–2008)

In 2003 Hein found the substantial private equity investment necessary to take Rock Bottom private again. He also used all of his personal fortune to help re-acquire the company from the shareholders. He celebrated ‘freeing Rock Bottom from its shackles’ by throwing a large celebration party. Celebrities were flown in from all over the world to attend. However, most of the new generation of store managers found Hein’s style. to be too loose and unfocused. He became rude and angry about their lack of entrepreneurial spirit. Furthermore, changes in products and how they were purchased meant that fewer people bought conventional audio products from specialist shops. The reliability of these products now meant that they were replaced relatively infrequently. Hein, belatedly, started to consider selling via an Internet site. Turnover and profitability plummeted. In 2007 Hein again considered franchising the company,but he realised that this was unlikely to be successful. In early 2008 the company ceased trading and Hein himself,now increasingly vilified and attacked by the press, filed for personal bankruptcy.

Required:

(a) Analyse the reasons for Rock Bottom’s success or failure in each of the three phases identified in the

scenario. Evaluate how Rick Hein’s leadership style. contributed to the success or failure of each phase.

(18 marks)

(b) Rick Hein considered franchising the Rock Bottom brand at two points in its history – 1988 and 2007.

Explain the key factors that would have made franchising Rock Bottom feasible in 1988, but would have

made it ‘unlikely to be successful’ in 2007. (7 marks)

正确答案:

(a) The product life cycle model suggests that a product passes through six stages: introduction, development, growth, shakeout,
maturity and decline. The first Rock Bottom phase appears to coincide with the introduction, development and growth periods
of the products offered by the company. These highly specified, high quality products were new to the country and were
quickly adopted by a certain consumer segment (see below). The life cycle concept also applies to services, and the innovative
way in which Rock Bottom sold and marketed the products distinguished the company from potential competitors. Not only
were these competitors still selling inferior and older products but their retail methods looked outdated compared with Rock Bottom’s bright, specialist shops. Rock Bottom’s entry into the market-place also exploited two important changes in the
external environment. The first was the technological advance of the Japanese consumer electronics industry. The second
was the growing economic power of young people, who wished to spend their increasing disposable income on products that
allowed them to enjoy popular music. Early entrants into an industry gain experience of that industry sooner than others. This
may not only be translated into cost advantages but also into customer loyalty that helps them through subsequent stages of
the product’s life cycle. Rock Bottom enjoyed the advantages of a first mover in this industry.
Hein’s leadership style. appears to have been consistent with contemporary society and more than acceptable to his young
target market. As an entrepreneur, his charismatic leadership was concerned with building a vision for the organisation and
then energising people to achieve it. The latter he achieved through appointing branch managers who reflected, to some
degree, his own style. and approach. His willingness to delegate considerable responsibility to these leaders, and to reward
them well, was also relatively innovative. The shops were also staffed by young people who understood the capabilities of the
products they were selling. It was an early recognition that intangible resources of skills and knowledge were important to the
organisation.
In summary, in the first phase Rock Bottom’s organisation and Hein’s leadership style. appear to have been aligned with
contemporary society, the customer base, employees and Rock Bottom’s position in the product/service life cycle.
The second phase of the Rock Bottom story appears to reflect the shakeout and maturity phases of the product life cycle. The
entry of competitors into the market is a feature of the growth stage. However, it is in the shakeout stage that the market
becomes saturated with competitors. The Rock Bottom product and service approach is easily imitated. Hein initially reacted
to these new challenges by a growing maturity, recognising that outrageous behaviour might deter the banks from lending to
him. However, the need to raise money to fund expansion and a latent need to realise (and enjoy) his investment led to the
company being floated on the country’s stock exchange. This, eventually, created two problems.
The first was the need for the company to provide acceptable returns to shareholders. This would have been a new challenge
for Hein. He would have to not only maintain dividends to external shareholders, but he would also have to monitor and
improve the publicly quoted share price. In an attempt to establish an organisation that could deliver such value, changes
were made in the organisational structure and style. Most of the phase 1 entrepreneur-style. managers left. This may have
been inevitable anyway as Rock Bottom would have had problems continuing with such high individual reward packages in
a maturing market. However, the new public limited organisation also demanded managers who were more transactional
leaders, focusing on designing systems and controlling performance. This style. of management was alien to Rick’s approach.
The second problem was the need for the organisation to become more transparent. The publishing of Hein’s financial details
was embarrassing, particularly as his income fuelled a life-style. that was becoming less acceptable to society. What had once
appeared innovative and amusing now looked like an indulgence. The challenge now was for Hein to change his leadership
style. to suit the new situation. However, he ultimately failed to do this. Like many leaders who have risen to their position
through entrepreneurial ability and a dominant spirit, the concept of serving stakeholders rather than ordering them around
proved too difficult to grasp. The sensible thing would have been to leave Rock Bottom and start afresh. However, like many
entrepreneurs he was emotionally attached to the company and so he persuaded a group of private equity financiers to help
him buy it back. Combining the roles of Chairman and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is also controversial and likely to attract
criticism concerning corporate governance.

In summary, in the second phase of Hein’s leadership he failed to change his approach to reflect changing social values, a
maturing product/service market-place and the need to serve new and important stakeholders in the organisation. He clearly
saw the public limited company as a ‘shackle’ on his ambition and its obligations an infringement of his personal privacy.
It can be argued that Hein took Rock Bottom back into private ownership just as the product life cycle moved into its decline
stage. The product life cycle is a timely reminder that any product or service has a finite life. Forty years earlier, as a young
man, Hein was in touch with the technological and social changes that created a demand for his product and service.
However, he had now lost touch with the forces shaping the external environment. Products have now moved on. Music is
increasingly delivered through downloaded files that are then played through computers (for home use) or MP3s (for portable
use). Even where consumers use traditional electronic equipment, the reliability of this equipment means that it is seldom
replaced. The delivery method, through specialised shops, which once seemed so innovative is now widely imitated and
increasingly, due to the Internet, less cost-effective. Consumers of these products are knowledgeable buyers and are only
willing to purchase, after careful cost and delivery comparisons, through the Internet. Hence, Hein is in a situation where he
faces more competition to supply products which are used and replaced less frequently, using a sales channel that is
increasingly uncompetitive. Consequently, Hein’s attempt to re-vitalise the shops by using the approach he adopted in phase
1 of the company was always doomed to failure. This failure was also guaranteed by the continued presence of the managers
appointed in phase 2 of the company. These were managers used to tight controls and targets set by centralised management.
To suddenly be let loose was not what they wanted and Hein appears to have reacted to their inability to act entrepreneurially
with anger and abuse. Hein’s final acts of reinvention concerned the return to a hedonistic, conspicuous life style. that he had
enjoyed in the early days of the company. He probably felt that this was possible now that he did not have the reporting
requirements of the public limited company. However, he had failed to recognise significant changes in society. He celebrated
the freeing of ‘Rock Bottom from its shackles’ by throwing a large celebration party. Celebrities were flown in from all over the
world to attend. It seems inevitable that the cost and carbon footprint of such an event would now attract criticism.
Finally, in summary, Hein’s approach and leadership style. in phase 3 became increasingly out of step with society’s
expectations, customers’ requirements and employees’ expectations. However, unlike phase 2, Hein was now free of the
responsibilities and controls of professional management in a public limited company. This led him to conspicuous activities
that further devalued the brand, meaning that its demise was inevitable.

(b) At the end of the first phase Hein still had managers who were entrepreneurial in their outlook. It might have been attractive
for them to become franchisees, particularly as this might be a way of protecting their income through the more challenging
stages of the product and service life cycle that lay ahead. However, by the time Hein came to look at franchising again (phase
3), the managers were unlikely to be of the type that would take up the challenge of running a franchise. These were
managers used to meeting targets within the context of centrally determined policies and budgets within a public limited
company. Hein would have to make these employees redundant (at significant cost) and with no certainty that he could find
franchisees to replace them.
At the end of phase 1, Rock Bottom was a strong brand, associated with youth and innovation. First movers often retain
customer loyalty even when their products and approach have been imitated by new aggressive entrants to the market. A
strong brand is essential for a successful franchise as it is a significant part of what the franchisee is buying. However, by the
time Hein came to look at franchising again in phase 3, the brand was devalued by his behaviour and incongruent with
customer expectations and sales channels. For example, it had no Internet sales channel. If Hein had developed Rock Bottom
as a franchise it would have given him the opportunity to focus on building the brand, rather than financing the expansion
of the business through the issue of shares.
At the end of phase 1, Rock Bottom was still a financially successful company. If it had been franchised at this point, then
Hein could have realised some of his investment (through franchise fees) and used some of this to reward himself, and the
rest of the money could have been used to consolidate the brand. Much of the future financial risk would have been passed
to the franchisees. There would have been no need to take Rock Bottom public and so suffer the scrutiny associated with a
public limited company. However, by the time Hein came to look at franchising again in phase 3, most of the shops were
trading at a loss. He saw franchising as a way of disposing of the company in what he hoped was a sufficiently well-structured
way. In effect, it was to minimise losses. It seems highly unlikely that franchisees would have been attracted by investing in
something that was actually making a loss. Even if they were, it is unlikely that the franchise fees (and hence the money
immediately realised) would be very high.


(ii) the directors agree to disclose the note. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) If the directors agree to disclose the note, it should be reviewed by the auditors to ensure that it is sufficiently detailed.
In evaluating the adequacy of the disclosure in the note, the auditor should consider whether the disclosure explicitly
draws the reader’s attention to the possibility that the entity may not be able to continue as a going concern in the
foreseeable future. The note should include a description of conditions giving rise to significant doubt, and the directors’
plans to deal with the conditions. If the note provided contains adequate information then there is no breach of financial
reporting standards, and so no disagreement with the directors.
If the disclosure is considered adequate, then the opinion should not be qualified. The auditors should consider a
modification by adding an emphasis of matter paragraph to highlight the existence of the material uncertainties, and to
draw attention to the note to the financial statements. The emphasis of matter paragraph should firstly contain a brief
description of the uncertainties, and also refer explicitly to the note to the financial statements where the situation has
been fully described. The emphasis of matter paragraph should re-iterate that the audit opinion is not qualified.
However, it could be the case that a note has been given in the financial statements, but that the details are inadequate
and do not fully explain the significant uncertainties affecting the going concern status of the company. In this situation
the auditors should express a qualified opinion, disagreeing with the preparation of the financial statements, as the
disclosure requirements of IAS 1 have not been followed.


(c) Explain the possible impact of RBG outsourcing its internal audit services on the audit of the financial

statements by Grey & Co. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(c) Impact on the audit of the financial statements
Tutorial note: The answer to this part should reflect that it is not the external auditor who is providing the internal audit
services. Thus comments regarding objectivity impairment are not relevant.
■ As Grey & Co is likely to be placing some reliance on RBG’s internal audit department in accordance with ISA 610
Considering the Work of Internal Auditing the degree of reliance should be reassessed.
■ The appointment will include an evaluation of organisational risk. The results of this will provide Grey with evidence,
for example:
– supporting the appropriateness of the going concern assumption;
– of indicators of obsolescence of goods or impairment of other assets.
■ As the quality of internal audit services should be higher than previously, providing a stronger control environment, the
extent to which Grey may rely on internal audit work could be increased. This would increase the efficiency of the
external audit of the financial statements as the need for substantive procedures should be reduced.
■ However, if internal audit services are performed on a part-time basis (e.g. fitting into the provider’s less busy months)
Grey must evaluate the impact of this on the prevention, detection and control of fraud and error.
■ The internal auditors will provide a body of expertise within RBG with whom Grey can consult on contentious matters.
Tutorial note: Appropriate credit will be given for arguing that less reliance may be placed on internal audit in this year of
change of provider.


(b) The chief executive of Xalam Co, an exporter of specialist equipment, has asked for advice on the accounting

treatment and disclosure of payments made for security consultancy services. The payments, which aim to

ensure that consignments are not impounded in the destination country of a major customer, may be material to

the financial statements for the year ending 30 June 2006. Xalam does not treat these payments as tax

deductible. (4 marks)

Required:

Identify and comment on the ethical and other professional issues raised by each of these matters and state what

action, if any, Dedza should now take.

NOTE: The mark allocation is shown against each of the three situations.

正确答案:
(b) Advice on payments
■ As compared with (a) there is no obvious tax issue. Xalam is not overstating expenditure for tax purposes.
■ The payments being made for security consultancy services amount to a bribe. Corruption and bribery (and extortion)
are designated categories of money laundering offence under ‘The Forty Recommendations’ of the Financial Action Task
Force on Money Laundering (FATF).
■ Xalam clearly benefits from the payments as it receives income from the contract with the major customer. This is
criminal property and possession of it is a money laundering offence.
■ Dedza should consider the seriousness of the disclosure made by the chief executive in the context of domestic law.
■ Dedza should consider its knowledge of import duties etc in the destination country before recommending a course of
action to Xalam.
■ Dedza may be guilty of a money laundering offence if the matter is not reported. If a report to the FIU is considered
necessary then Dedza should encourage Xalam to make voluntary disclosure. If Xalam does not, Dedza will not be in
breach of client confidentiality for reporting knowledge of a suspicious transaction.
Tutorial note: Making a report takes precedence over client confidentiality.


(ii) The property of the former administrative centre of Tyre is owned by the company. Tyre had decided in the year

that the property was surplus to requirements and demolished the building on 10 June 2006. After demolition,

the company will have to carry out remedial environmental work, which is a legal requirement resulting from the

demolition. It was intended that the land would be sold after the remedial work had been carried out. However,

land prices are currently increasing in value and, therefore, the company has decided that it will not sell the land

immediately. Tyres uses the ‘cost model’ in IAS16 ‘Property, plant and equipment’ and has owned the property

for many years. (7 marks)

Required:

Advise the directors of Tyre on how to treat the above items in the financial statements for the year ended

31 May 2006.

(The mark allocation is shown against each of the above items)

正确答案:
(ii) Former administrative building
The land and buildings of the former administrative centre are accounted for as separate elements. The demolition of the
building is an indicator of the impairment of the property under IAS36. The building will not generate any future cash flows
and its recoverable amount is zero. Therefore, the carrying value of the building will be written down to zero and the loss
charged to profit or loss in the year to 31 May 2006 when the decision to demolish the building was made. The land value
will be in excess of its carrying amount as the company uses the cost model and land prices are rising. Thus no impairment
charge is recognised in respect of the land.
The demolition costs will be expensed when incurred and a provision for environmental costs recognised when an obligation
arises, i.e. in the financial year to 31 May 2007. It may be that some of these costs could be recognised as site preparation
costs and be capitalised under IAS16.
The land will not meet the criteria set out in IFRS5 ‘Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations’ as a noncurrent
asset which is held for sale. IFRS5 says that a non-current asset should be classified as ‘held for sale’ if its carrying
amount will be recovered principally through a sale transaction rather than through continuing use. However, the non-current
asset must be available for immediate sale and must be actively marketed at its current fair value (amongst other criteria) and
these criteria have not been met in this case.
When the building has been demolished and the site prepared, the land could be considered to be an investment property
and accounted for under IAS40 ‘Investment Property’ where the fair value model allows gains (or losses) to be recognised inprofit or loss for the period.


(iii) Lateral or horizontal. (3 marks)

正确答案:
(iii) Lateral or horizontal. Traditional communication assumes a hierarchical structure with only vertical communication,however horizontal communication has become important and necessary in less formal organisations. It takes the form. of coordination with departmental managers or supervisors meeting regularly, problem solving with department members meeting to resolve an issue or information sharing and it also describes interdepartmental sharing of ideas or conflict resolution where there is a need to resolve interdepartmental friction.


14 Alpha buys goods from Beta. At 30 June 2005 Beta’s account in Alpha’s records showed $5,700 owing to Beta.

Beta submitted a statement to Alpha as at the same date showing a balance due of $5,200.

Which of the following could account fully for the difference?

A Alpha has sent a cheque to Beta for $500 which has not yet been received by Beta.

B The credit side of Beta’s account in Alpha’s records has been undercast by $500.

C An invoice for $250 from Beta has been treated in Alpha’s records as if it had been a credit note.

D Beta has issued a credit note for $500 to Alpha which Alpha has not yet received.

正确答案:D


(b) Analyse THREE potential problems, based solely on the information provided above, that TMC might

encounter in the acquisition of CBC. (5 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Three potential problems that TMC might encounter in the proposed acquisition of CBC are as follows:
(i) TMC is forecast to have a 22% share of the market for disposable nappies at the end of 2008. If TMC was to acquire
CBC at that time it would then have a market share of ($681m + $155m)/$3,095m = 27%. Much will depend on
prevailing legislation. For example, in the UK it might be the case that the Director General of Fair Trading may ask the
Competition Commission (CC) to investigate if any organisation controls 25% or more of the market. The Secretary of
State may do likewise in circumstances where the proposed takeover would lead to the creation of a firm that would
control 25% or more of the market. (Similar examples from other countries would be equally acceptable.)
(ii) The directors of TMC need to be aware of the precise nature of the cultural problems that CBC has experienced during
recent years as this could be very damaging to its business if the acquisition of CBC goes ahead. In an extreme case
the organisational cultures of TMC and CBC might be incompatible. The directors of TMC need to make a very careful
assessment as to whether it would be possible to transform. a negative culture into a positive one. If they consider that
this would prove to be very difficult then they might be best advised not to proceed with the acquisition.
(iii) The directors of TMC have no experience of managing such acquisitions and this might mean that the integration of CBC
into TMC would prove problematic. It is probable that the systems are different as well as the management styles,
employee skills and business infrastructure.
(Alternative relevant discussion would be acceptable)


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第2章


(ii) Construct the argument against Professor West’s opinion, and in favour of Professor Leroi’s opinion that

a principles-based approach would be preferable in developing countries. Your answer should consider

the particular situations of developing countries. (10 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Principles-based approach
Advantages of a principles-based approach
The rigour with which governance systems are applied can be varied according to size, situation, stage of development
of business, etc. Organisations (in legal terms) have a choice to the extent to which they wish to comply, although they
will usually have to ‘comply or explain’. Explanations are more accepted by shareholders and stock markets for smaller
companies.
Obeying the spirit of the law is better than ‘box ticking’ (‘sort of business you are’ rather than ‘obeying rules’). Being
aware of overall responsibilities is more important than going through a compliance exercise merely to demonstrate
conformance.
Avoids the ‘regulation overload’ of rules based (and associated increased business costs). The costs of compliance have
been a cause of considerable concern in the United States.
Self-regulation (e.g. by Financial Services Authority in the UK) rather than legal control has proven itself to underpin
investor confidence in several jurisdictions and the mechanisms are self-tightening (quicker and cheaper than legislation)
if initial public offering (IPO) volumes fall or capital flows elsewhere.
Context of developing countries
Developing countries’ economies tend to be dominated by small and medium sized organisations (SMEs). It would be
very costly and probably futile, to attempt to burden small businesses with regulatory requirements comparable to larger
concerns.
Having the flexibility to ‘comply or explain’ allows for those seeking foreign equity to increase compliance whilst those
with different priorities can delay full compliance. In low-liquidity stock markets (such as those in some developing
countries) where share prices are not seen as strategically important for businesses, adopting a more flexible approach
might be a better use of management talent rather than ‘jumping through hoops’ to comply with legally-binding
constraints.
The state needs to have an enforcement mechanism in place to deal with non-compliance and this itself represents a
cost to taxpayers and the corporate sector. Developing countries may not have the full infrastructure in place to enable
compliance (auditors, pool of NEDs, professional accountants, internal auditors, etc) and a principles-based approach
goes some way to recognise this.


19 What is the company’s return on shareholders’ equity?

A 15/40 = 37·5%

B 20/100 = 20%

C 15/100 = 15%

D 20/150 = 13·3%

正确答案:C


The following trial balance relates to Sandown at 30 September 2009:

The following notes are relevant:

(i) Sandown’s revenue includes $16 million for goods sold to Pending on 1 October 2008. The terms of the sale are that Sandown will incur ongoing service and support costs of $1·2 million per annum for three years after the sale. Sandown normally makes a gross profit of 40% on such servicing and support work. Ignore the time value of money.

(ii) Administrative expenses include an equity dividend of 4·8 cents per share paid during the year.

(iii) The 5% convertible loan note was issued for proceeds of $20 million on 1 October 2007. It has an effective interest rate of 8% due to the value of its conversion option.

(iv) During the year Sandown sold an available-for-sale investment for $11 million. At the date of sale it had a

carrying amount of $8·8 million and had originally cost $7 million. Sandown has recorded the disposal of the

investment. The remaining available-for-sale investments (the $26·5 million in the trial balance) have a fair value of $29 million at 30 September 2009. The other reserve in the trial balance represents the net increase in the value of the available-for-sale investments as at 1 October 2008. Ignore deferred tax on these transactions.

(v) The balance on current tax represents the under/over provision of the tax liability for the year ended 30 September 2008. The directors have estimated the provision for income tax for the year ended 30 September 2009 at $16·2 million. At 30 September 2009 the carrying amounts of Sandown’s net assets were $13 million in excess of their tax base. The income tax rate of Sandown is 30%.

(vi) Non-current assets:

The freehold property has a land element of $13 million. The building element is being depreciated on a

straight-line basis.

Plant and equipment is depreciated at 40% per annum using the reducing balance method.

Sandown’s brand in the trial balance relates to a product line that received bad publicity during the year which led to falling sales revenues. An impairment review was conducted on 1 April 2009 which concluded that, based on estimated future sales, the brand had a value in use of $12 million and a remaining life of only three years.

However, on the same date as the impairment review, Sandown received an offer to purchase the brand for

$15 million. Prior to the impairment review, it was being depreciated using the straight-line method over a

10-year life.

No depreciation/amortisation has yet been charged on any non-current asset for the year ended 30 September

2009. Depreciation, amortisation and impairment charges are all charged to cost of sales.

Required:

(a) Prepare the statement of comprehensive income for Sandown for the year ended 30 September 2009.

(13 marks)

(b) Prepare the statement of financial position of Sandown as at 30 September 2009. (12 marks)

Notes to the financial statements are not required.

A statement of changes in equity is not required.

正确答案:
(i)IAS18Revenuerequiresthatwheresalesrevenueincludesanamountforaftersalesservicingandsupportcoststhenaproportionoftherevenueshouldbedeferred.Theamountdeferredshouldcoverthecostandareasonableprofit(inthiscaseagrossprofitof40%)ontheservices.Astheservicingandsupportisforthreeyearsandthedateofthesalewas1October2008,revenuerelatingtotwoyears’servicingandsupportprovisionmustbedeferred:($1·2millionx2/0·6)=$4million.Thisisshownas$2millioninbothcurrentandnon-currentliabilities.


(ii) Calculate the minimum target contribution to sales ratio (%) at which ‘Nellie the Elephant’ will be

financially viable, assuming that all other data remain unchanged. (4 marks)

正确答案:

 


(b) Using the unit cost information available and your calculations in (a), prepare a financial analysis of the

decision strategy which TOC may implement with regard to the manufacture of each product. (6 marks)

正确答案:

 


(b) Paying a dividend of 10c per share (1 mark)

正确答案:
(b) Paying a dividend of 10c per share.
There are insufficient retained earnings to pay a dividend of more than 5c per share.


(b) Discuss FOUR factors that distinguish service from manufacturing organisations and explain how each of

these factors relates to the services provided by the Dental Health Partnership. (5 marks)

正确答案:
(b) The major characteristics of services which distinguish services from manufacturing are as follows:
– Intangibility.
When a dentist provides a service to a client there are many intangible factors involved such as for example the
appearance of the surgery, the personality of the dentist, the manner and efficiency of the dental assistant. The output
of the service is ‘performance’ by the dentist as opposed to tangible goods.
– Simultaneity.
The service provided by the dentist to the patient is created by the dentist at the same time as the patient consumed it
thus preventing any advance verification of quality.
– Heterogeneity.
Many service organisations face the problem of achieving consistency in the quality of its output. Whilst each of the
dentists within the Dental Health Partnership will have similar professional qualifications there will be differences in the
manner they provide services to clients.
– Perishability.
Many services are perishable. The services of a dentist are purchased only for the duration of an appointment.


(c) Explain the possible impact of RBG outsourcing its internal audit services on the audit of the financial

statements by Grey & Co. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(c) Impact on the audit of the financial statements
Tutorial note: The answer to this part should reflect that it is not the external auditor who is providing the internal audit
services. Thus comments regarding objectivity impairment are not relevant.
■ As Grey & Co is likely to be placing some reliance on RBG’s internal audit department in accordance with ISA 610
Considering the Work of Internal Auditing the degree of reliance should be reassessed.
■ The appointment will include an evaluation of organisational risk. The results of this will provide Grey with evidence,
for example:
– supporting the appropriateness of the going concern assumption;
– of indicators of obsolescence of goods or impairment of other assets.
■ As the quality of internal audit services should be higher than previously, providing a stronger control environment, the
extent to which Grey may rely on internal audit work could be increased. This would increase the efficiency of the
external audit of the financial statements as the need for substantive procedures should be reduced.
■ However, if internal audit services are performed on a part-time basis (e.g. fitting into the provider’s less busy months)
Grey must evaluate the impact of this on the prevention, detection and control of fraud and error.
■ The internal auditors will provide a body of expertise within RBG with whom Grey can consult on contentious matters.
Tutorial note: Appropriate credit will be given for arguing that less reliance may be placed on internal audit in this year of
change of provider.


(d) Evaluate the effect on Gerard of the changes to be made by Fizz plc to its performance related bonus scheme.

You should ignore the effect of any pension contributions to be made by Gerard in the future, consider both

the value and timing of amounts received by Gerard and include relevant supporting calculations.

(5 marks)

Note: – You should assume that the income tax rates and allowances for the tax year 2006/07 apply throughout

this question.

正确答案:
(d) Implications for Gerard of the changes to Fizz plc’s bonus scheme
Value received
Under the existing scheme Gerard receives approximately £4,500 each year. This is subject to income tax at 40% and
national insurance contributions at 1% such that Gerard receives £2,655 (£4,500 x 59%) after all taxes.
Under the proposed share incentive plan (SIP), Gerard expects to receive free shares worth £3,500 (£2,100 + £1,400).
Provided the shares remain in the plan for at least five years there will be no income tax or national insurance contributions
in respect of the value received. Gerard’s base cost in the shares for the purposes of capital gains tax will be their value at
the time they are withdrawn from the scheme.
In addition, the amount he spends on partnership shares will be allowable for both income tax and national insurance such
that he will obtain shares with a value of £700 for a cost of only £413 (£700 x 59%).
Accordingly, Gerard will receive greater value under the SIP than he does under the existing bonus scheme. However, as noted
below, he will not be able to sell the free or matching shares until they have been in the scheme for at least three years by
which time they may have fallen in value.
Timing of receipt of benefit
Under the existing scheme Gerard receives a cash bonus each year.
The value of free and matching shares awarded under a SIP cannot be realised until the shares are withdrawn from the
scheme and sold. This withdrawal cannot take place until at least three years after the shares are awarded to Gerard.
Accordingly, Gerard will not have access to the value of the bonuses he receives under the SIP until the scheme has been in
operation for at least three years. In addition, if the shares are withdrawn within five years of being awarded, income tax and
national insurance contributions will become payable on the lower of their value at the time of the award and their value at
the time of withdrawal thus reducing the value of Gerard’s bonus.


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第3章


(c) Discuss the difficulties that may be experienced by a small company which is seeking to obtain additional

funding to finance an expansion of business operations. (8 marks)

正确答案:
(c) Small businesses face a number of well-documented problems when seeking to raise additional finance. These problems have
been extensively discussed and governments regularly make initiatives seeking to address these problems.
Risk and security
Investors are less willing to offer finance to small companies as they are seen as inherently more risky than large companies.
Small companies obtaining debt finance usually use overdrafts or loans from banks, which require security to reduce the level
of risk associated with the debt finance. Since small companies are likely to possess little by way of assets to offer as security,
banks usually require a personal guarantee instead, and this limits the amount of finance available.
Marketability of ordinary shares
The equity issued by small companies is difficult to buy and sell, and sales are usually on a matched bargain basis, which
means that a shareholder wishing to sell has to wait until an investor wishes to buy. There is no financial intermediary willing
to buy the shares and hold them until a buyer comes along, so selling shares in a small company can potentially take a long
time. This lack of marketability reduces the price that a buyer is willing to pay for the shares. Investors in small company
shares have traditionally looked to a flotation, for example on the UK Alternative Investment Market, as a way of realising their
investment, but this has become increasingly expensive. Small companies are likely to be very limited in their ability to offer
new equity to anyone other than family and friends.
Tax considerations
Individuals with cash to invest may be encouraged by the tax system to invest in large institutional investors rather than small
companies, for example by tax incentives offered on contributions to pension funds. These institutional investors themselves
usually invest in larger companies, such as stock-exchange listed companies, in order to maintain what they see as an
acceptable risk profile, and in order to ensure a steady stream of income to meet ongoing liabilities. This tax effect reduces
the potential flow of funds to small companies.
Cost
Since small companies are seen as riskier than large companies, the cost of the finance they are offered is proportionately
higher. Overdrafts and bank loans will be offered to them on less favourable terms and at more demanding interest rates than
debt offered to larger companies. Equity investors will expect higher returns, if not in the form. of dividends then in the form
of capital appreciation over the life of their investment.


Explain the grounds upon which a person may be disqualified under the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986.(10 marks)

正确答案:

The Company Directors Disqualification Act (CDDA) 1986 was introduced to control individuals who persistently abused the various privileges that accompany incorporation, most particularly the privilege of limited liability. The Act applies to more than just directors and the court may make an order preventing any person (without leave of the court) from being:
(i) a director of a company;
(ii) a liquidator or administrator of a company;
(iii) a receiver or manager of a company’s property; or
(iv) in any way, whether directly or indirectly, concerned with or taking part in the promotion, formation or management of a company.
The CDDA 1986 identifies three distinct categories of conduct, which may, and in some circumstances must, lead the court to disqualify certain persons from being involved in the management of companies.
(a) General misconduct in connection with companies
This first category involves the following:
(i) A conviction for an indictable offence in connection with the promotion, formation, management or liquidation of a company or with the receivership or management of a company’s property (s.2 of the CDDA 1986). The maximum period for disqualification under s.2 is five years where the order is made by a court of summary jurisdiction, and 15 years in any other case.

(ii) Persistent breaches of companies legislation in relation to provisions which require any return, account or other document to be filed with, or notice of any matter to be given to, the registrar (s.3 of the CDDA 1986). Section 3 provides that a person is conclusively proved to be persistently in default where it is shown that, in the five years ending with the date of the application, he has been adjudged guilty of three or more defaults (s.3(2) of the CDDA 1986). This is without prejudice to proof of persistent default in any other manner. The maximum period of disqualification under this section is five years.
(iii) Fraud in connection with winding up (s.4 of the CDDA 1986). A court may make a disqualification order if, in the course of the winding up of a company, it appears that a person:
(1) has been guilty of an offence for which he is liable under s.993 of the CA 2006, that is, that he has knowingly been a party to the carrying on of the business of the company either with the intention of defrauding the company’s creditors or any other person or for any other fraudulent purpose; or
(2) has otherwise been guilty, while an officer or liquidator of the company or receiver or manager of the property of the company, of any fraud in relation to the company or of any breach of his duty as such officer, liquidator, receiver or manager (s.4(1)(b) of the CDDA 1986).
The maximum period of disqualification under this category is 15 years.(b) Disqualification for unfitness
The second category covers:
(i) disqualification of directors of companies which have become insolvent, who are found by the court to be unfit to be directors (s.6 of the CDDA 1986). Under s. 6, the minimum period of disqualification is two years, up to a maximum of 15 years;
(ii) disqualification after investigation of a company under Pt XIV of the CA 1985 (it should be noted that this part of the previous Act still sets out the procedures for company investigations) (s.8 of the CDDA 1986). Once again, the maximum period of disqualification is 15 years.
Schedule 1 to the CDDA 1986 sets out certain particulars to which the court is to have regard in deciding whether a person’s conduct as a director makes them unfit to be concerned in the management of a company. In addition, the courts have given indications as to what sort of behaviour will render a person liable to be considered unfit to act as a company director. Thus, in Re Lo-Line Electric Motors Ltd (1988), it was stated that:
‘Ordinary commercial misjudgment is in itself not sufficient to justify disqualification. In the normal case, the conduct complained of must display a lack of commercial probity, although . . . in an extreme case of gross negligence or total incompetence, disqualification could be appropriate.’

(c) Other cases for disqualification
This third category relates to:
(i) participation in fraudulent or wrongful trading under s.213 of the Insolvency Act (IA)1986 (s.10 of the CDDA 1986);
(ii) undischarged bankrupts acting as directors (s.11 of the CDDA 1986); and
(iii) failure to pay under a county court administration order (s.12 of the CDDA 1986).
For the purposes of most of the CDDA 1986, the court has discretion to make a disqualification order. Where, however, a person has been found to be an unfit director of an insolvent company, the court has a duty to make a disqualification order (s.6 of the CDDA 1986). Anyone who acts in contravention of a disqualification order is liable:
(i) to imprisonment for up to two years and/or a fine, on conviction on indictment; or
(ii) to imprisonment for up to six months and/or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, on conviction summarily (s.13 of the CDDA 1986).


(ii) The use of the trading loss of Tethys Ltd for the year ending 31 December 2008; (6 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Tethys Ltd – Use of trading loss
– The two companies will not be in a group relief group as Saturn Ltd will not own 75% of Tethys Ltd.
– For a consortium to exist, 75% of the ordinary share capital of Tethys Ltd must be held by companies which each
hold at least 5%. Accordingly, Tethys Ltd will be a consortium company if the balance of its share capital is owned
by Clangers Ltd but not if it is owned by Edith Clanger.
– If Tethys Ltd qualifies as a consortium company: 65% of its trading losses in the period from 1 August 2008 to
31 December 2008 can be surrendered to Saturn Ltd, i.e. £21,667 (£80,000 x 5/12 x 65%).
– If Tethys Ltd does not qualify as a consortium company: none of its loss can be surrendered to Saturn Ltd.
– The acquisition of 65% of Tethys Ltd is a change in ownership of the company. If there is a major change in the
nature or conduct of the trade of Tethys Ltd within three years of 1 August 2008, the loss arising prior to that date
cannot be carried forward for relief in the future.
Further information required:
– Ownership of the balance of the share capital of Tethys Ltd.


(ii) The shares held in Date Inc and the dividend income received from that company. (7 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Shares held in Date Inc and the related dividend income
Degrouping charge
There will be a degrouping charge in Nikau Ltd in the year ending 31 March 2008 in respect of the shares in Date Inc.
This is because Nikau Ltd has left the Facet Group within six years of the no gain, no loss transfer of the shares whilst
still owning them.
Nikau Ltd is treated as if it has sold the shares in Date Inc for their market value as at the time of the no gain, no loss
transfer. This will give rise to a gain, ignoring indexation allowance, of £201,000 (£338,000 – £137,000).
This gain will give rise to additional corporation tax of £60,300 (£201,000 x 30%).
Controlled foreign company
Date Inc is a controlled foreign company. The profits of such a company are normally attributed to its UK resident
shareholders such that they are subject to UK corporation tax.
However, none of the profits of Date Inc will be attributed to Nikau Ltd because Date Inc distributes more than 90%
(£115,000/£120,000 = 95·8%) of its chargeable profits to its shareholders.
Dividend income
Nikau Ltd is a UK resident company and is therefore subject to corporation tax on its worldwide income.
The dividend income will be grossed up in respect of the withholding tax giving rise to taxable income of £39,792
(£38,200 x 100/96). There is no underlying tax as there are no taxes on income or capital profits in Palladia.
The corporation tax of £11,938 (£39,792 x 30%) will be reduced by unilateral double tax relief equal to the withholding
tax suffered of £1,592 (£39,792 x 4%) resulting in corporation tax due of £10,346 (£11,938 – £1,592).


4 (a) The purpose of ISA 510 ‘Initial Engagements – Opening Balances’ is to establish standards and provide guidance

regarding opening balances when the financial statements are audited for the first time or when the financial

statements for the prior period were audited by another auditor.

Required:

Explain the auditor’s reporting responsibilities that are specific to initial engagements. (5 marks)

正确答案:
4 JOHNSTON CO
(a) Reporting responsibilities specific to initial engagements
For initial audit engagements, the auditor should obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence that:
■ the opening balances do not contain misstatements that materially affect the current period’s financial statements;
■ the prior period’s closing balances have been correctly brought forward to the current period (or, where appropriate, have
been restated); and
■ appropriate accounting policies are consistently applied or changes in accounting policies have been properly accounted
for (and adequately presented and disclosed).
If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence concerning opening balances there will be a limitation
on the scope of the audit. The auditor’s report should include:
■ a qualified (‘except for’) opinion;
■ a disclaimer of opinion; or
■ in those jurisdictions where it is permitted, an opinion which is:
– qualified (or disclaimed) regarding the results of operations (i.e. on the income statement); and
– unqualified regarding financial position (i.e. on the balance sheet).
If the effect of a misstatement in the opening balances is not properly accounted for and adequately presented and disclosed,
the auditor should express a qualified (‘except for’ disagreement) opinion or an adverse opinion, as appropriate.
If the current period’s accounting policies have not been consistently applied in relation to opening balances and if the change
has not been properly accounted for and adequately presented and disclosed, the auditor should similarly express
disagreement (‘except for’ or adverse opinion as appropriate).
However, if a modification regarding the prior period’s financial statements remains relevant and material to the current
period’s financial statements, the auditor should modify the current auditor’s report accordingly.


(c) In April 2006, Keffler was banned by the local government from emptying waste water into a river because the

water did not meet minimum standards of cleanliness. Keffler has made a provision of $0·9 million for the

technological upgrading of its water purifying process and included $45,000 for the penalties imposed in ‘other

provisions’. (5 marks)

Required:

For each of the above issues:

(i) comment on the matters that you should consider; and

(ii) state the audit evidence that you should expect to find,

in undertaking your review of the audit working papers and financial statements of Keffler Co for the year ended

31 March 2006.

NOTE: The mark allocation is shown against each of the three issues.

正确答案:
(c) Ban on emptying waste water
(i) Matter
■ $0·9m provision for upgrading the process represents 45% PBT and is very material. This provision is also
material to the balance sheet (2·7% of total assets).
■ The provision for penalties is immaterial (2·2% PBT and 0·1% total assets).
■ The ban is an adjusting post balance sheet event in respect of the penalties (IAS 10). It provides evidence that at
the balance sheet date Keffler was in contravention of local government standards. Therefore it is correct (in
accordance with IAS 37) that a provision has been made for the penalties. As the matter is not material inclusion
in ‘other provisions’ is appropriate.
■ However, even if Keffler has a legal obligation to meet minimum standards, there is no obligation for upgrading the
purifying process at 31 March 2006 and the $0·9m provision should be written back.
■ If the provision for upgrading is not written back the audit opinion should be qualified ‘except for’ (disagreement).
■ Keffler does not even have a contingent liability for upgrading the process because there is no present obligation to
do so. The obligation is to stop emptying unclean water into the river. Nor is there a possible obligation whose
existence will be confirmed by an uncertain future event not wholly within Keffler’s control.
Tutorial note: Consider that Keffler has alternatives wholly within its control. For example, it could ignore the ban
and incur fines, or relocate/close this particular plant/operation or perhaps dispose of the water by alternative
means.
■ The need for a technological upgrade may be an indicator of impairment. Management should have carried out
an impairment test on the carrying value of the water purifying process and recognised any impairment loss in the
profit for the year to 31 March 2006.
■ Management’s intention to upgrade the process is more appropriate to an environmental responsibility report (if
any).
■ Whether there is any other information in documents containing financial statements.
(ii) Audit evidence
■ Penalty notices of fines received to confirm amounts and period/dates covered.
■ After-date payment of fines agreed to the cash book.
■ A copy of the ban and any supporting report on the local government’s findings.
■ Minutes of board meetings at which the ban was discussed confirming management’s intentions (e.g. to upgrade
the process).
Tutorial note: This may be disclosed in the directors’ report and/or as a non-adjusting post balance sheet event.
■ Any tenders received/costings for upgrading.
Tutorial note: This will be relevant if, for example, capital commitment authorised (by the board) but not
contracted for at the year end are disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.
■ Physical inspection of the emptying point at the river to confirm that Keffler is not still emptying waste water into
it (unless the upgrading has taken place).
Tutorial note: Thereby incurring further penalties.


(b) Using the TARA framework, construct four possible strategies for managing the risk presented by Product 2.

Your answer should describe each strategy and explain how each might be applied in the case.

(10 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Risk management strategies and Chen Products
Risk transference strategy
This would involve the company accepting a portion of the risk and seeking to transfer a part to a third party. Although an
unlikely possibility given the state of existing claims, insurance against future claims would serve to limit Chen’s potential
losses and place a limit on its losses. Outsourcing manufacture may be a way of transferring risk if the ourtsourcee can be
persuaded to accept some of the product liability.
Risk avoidance strategy
An avoidance strategy involves discontinuing the activity that is exposing the company to risk. In the case of Chen this would
involve ceasing production of Product 2. This would be pursued if the impact (hazard) and probability of incurring an
acceptable level of liability were both considered to be unacceptably high and there were no options for transference or
reduction.
Risk reduction strategy
A risk reduction strategy involves seeking to retain a component of the risk (in order to enjoy the return assumed to be
associated with that risk) but to reduce it and thereby limit its ability to create liability. Chen produces four products and it
could reconfigure its production capacity to produce proportionately more of Products 1, 3 and 4 and proportionately less of
Product 2. This would reduce Product 2 in the overall portfolio and therefore Chen’s exposure to its risks. This would need
to be associated with instructions to other departments (e.g. sales and marketing) to similarly reconfigure activities to sell
more of the other products and less of Product 2.
Risk acceptance strategy
A risk acceptance strategy involves taking limited or no action to reduce the exposure to risk and would be taken if the returns
expected from bearing the risk were expected to be greater than the potential liabilities. The case mentions that Product 2 is
highly profitable and it may be that the returns attainable by maintaining and even increasing Product 2’s sales are worth the
liabilities incurred by compensation claims. This is a risk acceptance strategy.


(b) Calculate the inheritance tax (IHT) liability arising as a result of Christopher’s death. (11 marks)

正确答案:

 


(b) Using models where appropriate, what are likely to be the critical success factors (CSFs) as the business

grows and develops? (10 marks)

正确答案:
(b) David even at this early stage needs to identify the critical success factors and related performance indicators that will show
that the concept is turning into a business reality. Many of the success factors will be linked to customer needs and
expectations and therefore where David’s business must excel in order to outperform. the competition. As an innovator one of
the critical success factors will be the time taken to develop and launch the new vase. Being first-to-market will be critical for
success. His ability to generate sales from demanding corporate customers will be a real indicator of that success. David will
need to ensure that he has adequate patent protection for the product and recognise that it will have a product life cycle.
There look to be a number of alternative markets and the ability to customise the product may be a CSF. Greiner indicates
the different stages a growing business goes through and the different problems associated with each stage. One of David’s
key problems will be to decide what type of business he wants to be. From the scenario it looks as if he is aiming to carry
out most of the functions himself and there is a need to decide what he does and what he gets others to do for him. Indeed
the skills he has may be as an innovator rather than as someone who carries out manufacture, distribution, etc. Gift Designs
may develop most quickly as a firm that creates new products and then licences them to larger firms with the skills to
penetrate the many market opportunities that are present. It is important for David to recognise that turning the product
concept into a viable and growing business may result in a business and a business model very different to what he
anticipated. Gift Designs needs to have the flexibility and agility to take advantage of the opportunities that will emerge over
time.


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第4章


4 (a) Explain the meaning of the term ‘working capital cycle’ for a trading company. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(a) The working capital cycle illustrates the changing make-up of working capital in the course of the trading operations of a
business:
1 Purchases are made on credit and the goods go into inventory.
2 Inventory is sold and converted into receivables
3 Credit customers pay their accounts
4 Cash is used to pay suppliers.


1 The board of Worldwide Minerals (WM) was meeting for the last monthly meeting before the publication of the yearend

results. There were two points of discussion on the agenda. First was the discussion of the year-end results;

second was the crucial latest minerals reserves report.

WM is a large listed multinational company that deals with natural minerals that are extracted from the ground,

processed and sold to a wide range of industrial and construction companies. In order to maintain a consistent supply

of minerals into its principal markets, an essential part of WM’s business strategy is the seeking out of new sources

and the measurement of known reserves. Investment analysts have often pointed out that WM’s value rests principally

upon the accuracy of its reserve reports as these are the best indicators of future cash flows and earnings. In order to

support this key part of its strategy, WM has a large and well-funded geological survey department which, according

to the company website, contains ‘some of the world’s best geologists and minerals scientists’. In its investor relations

literature, the company claims that:

‘our experts search the earth for mineral reserves and once located, they are carefully measured so that the company

can always report on known reserves. This knowledge underpins market confidence and keeps our customers

supplied with the inventory they need. You can trust our reserve reports – our reputation depends on it!’

At the board meeting, the head of the geological survey department, Ranjana Tyler, reported that there was a problem

with the latest report because one of the major reserve figures had recently been found to be wrong. The mineral in

question, mallerite, was WM’s largest mineral in volume terms and Ranjana explained that the mallerite reserves in

a deep mine in a certain part of the world had been significantly overestimated. She explained that, based on the

interim minerals report, the stock market analysts were expecting WM to announce known mallerite reserves of

4·8 billion tonnes. The actual figure was closer to 2·4 billion tonnes. It was agreed that this difference was sufficient

to affect WM’s market value, despite the otherwise good results for the past year. Vanda Monroe, the finance director,

said that the share price reflects market confidence in future earnings. She said that an announcement of an incorrect

estimation like that for mallerite would cause a reduction in share value. More importantly for WM itself, however, it

could undermine confidence in the geological survey department. All agreed that as this was strategically important

for the company, it was a top priority to deal with this problem.

Ranjana explained how the situation had arisen. The major mallerite mine was in a country new to WM’s operations.

The WM engineer at the mine said it was difficult to deal with some local people because, according to the engineer,

‘they didn’t like to give us bad news’. The engineer explained that when the mine was found to be smaller than

originally thought, he was not told until it was too late to reduce the price paid for the mine. This was embarrassing

and it was agreed that it would affect market confidence in WM if it was made public.

The board discussed the options open to it. The chairman, who was also a qualified accountant, was Tim Blake. He

began by expressing serious concern about the overestimation and then invited the board to express views freely. Gary

Howells, the operations director, said that because disclosing the error to the market would be so damaging, it might

be best to keep it a secret and hope that new reserves can be found in the near future that will make up for the

shortfall. He said that it was unlikely that this concealment would be found out as shareholders trusted WM and they

had many years of good investor relations to draw on. Vanda Monroe, the finance director, reminded the board that

the company was bound to certain standards of truthfulness and transparency by its stock market listing. She pointed

out that they were constrained by codes of governance and ethics by the stock market and that colleagues should be

aware that WM would be in technical breach of these if the incorrect estimation was concealed from investors. Finally,

Martin Chan, the human resources director, said that the error should be disclosed to the investors because he would

not want to be deceived if he were an outside investor in the company. He argued that whatever the governance codes

said and whatever the cost in terms of reputation and market value, WM should admit its error and cope with

whatever consequences arose. The WM board contains three non-executive directors and their views were also

invited.

At the preliminary results presentation some time later, one analyst, Christina Gonzales, who had become aware of

the mallerite problem, asked about internal audit and control systems, and whether they were adequate in such a

reserve-sensitive industry. WM’s chairman, Tim Blake, said that he intended to write a letter to all investors and

analysts in the light of the mallerite problem which he hoped would address some of the issues that Miss Gonzales

had raised.

Required:

(a) Define ‘transparency’ and evaluate its importance as an underlying principle in corporate governance and in

relevant and reliable financial reporting. Your answer should refer to the case as appropriate. (10 marks)

正确答案:
(a) Transparency and its importance at WM
Define transparency
Transparency is one of the underlying principles of corporate governance. As such, it is one of the ‘building blocks’ that
underpin a sound system of governance. In particular, transparency is required in the agency relationship. In terms of
definition, transparency means openness (say, of discussions), clarity, lack of withholding of relevant information unless
necessary and a default position of information provision rather than concealment. This is particularly important in financial
reporting, as this is the primary source of information that investors have for making effective investment decisions.
Evaluation of importance of transparency
There are a number of benefits of transparency. For instance, it is part of gaining trust with investors and state authorities
(e.g. tax people). Transparency provides access for investors and other stakeholders to company information thereby dispelling
suspicion and underpinning market confidence in the company through truthful and fair reporting. It also helps to manage
stakeholder claims and reduces the stresses caused by stakeholders (e.g. trade unions) for whom information provision is
important. Reasons for secrecy/confidentiality include the fact that it may be necessary to keep strategy discussions secret
from competitors. Internal issues may be private to individuals, thus justifying confidentiality. Finally, free (secret or
confidential) discussion often has to take place before an agreed position is announced (cabinet government approach).
Reference to case
At Worldwide Minerals, transparency as a principle is needed to deal with the discussion of concealment. Should a discussion
of possible concealment even be taking place? Truthful, accurate and timely reporting underpins investor confidence in all
capital-funded companies including WM. The issue of the overestimation of the mallerite reserve is clearly a matter of concern
to shareholders and so is an example of where a default assumption of transparency would be appropriate.


4 (a) Router, a public limited company operates in the entertainment industry. It recently agreed with a television

company to make a film which will be broadcast on the television company’s network. The fee agreed for the

film was $5 million with a further $100,000 to be paid every time the film is shown on the television company’s

channels. It is hoped that it will be shown on four occasions. The film was completed at a cost of $4 million and

delivered to the television company on 1 April 2007. The television company paid the fee of $5 million on

30 April 2007 but indicated that the film needed substantial editing before they were prepared to broadcast it,

the costs of which would be deducted from any future payments to Router. The directors of Router wish to

recognise the anticipated future income of $400,000 in the financial statements for the year ended 31 May

2007. (5 marks)

Required:

Discuss how the above items should be dealt with in the group financial statements of Router for the year ended

31 May 2007.

正确答案:
(a) Under IAS18 ‘Revenue’, revenue on a service contract is recognised when the outcome of the transaction can be measured
reliably. For revenue arising from the rendering of services, provided that all of the following criteria are met, revenue should
be recognised by reference to the stage of completion of the transaction at the balance sheet date (the percentage-ofcompletion
method) (IAS18 para 20):
(a) the amount of revenue can be measured reliably;
(b) it is probable that the economic benefits will flow to the seller;
(c) the stage of completion at the balance sheet date can be measured reliably; and
(d) the costs incurred, or to be incurred, in respect of the transaction can be measured reliably.
When the above criteria are not met, revenue arising from the rendering of services should be recognised only to the extent
of the expenses recognised that are recoverable. Because the only revenue which can be measured reliably is the fee for
making the film ($5 million), this should therefore be recognised as revenue in the year to 31 May 2007 and matched against
the cost of the film of $4 million. Only when the television company shows the film should any further amounts of $100,000
be recognised as there is an outstanding ‘performance’ condition in the form. of the editing that needs to take place before the
television company will broadcast the film. The costs of the film should not be carried forward and matched against
anticipated future income unless they can be deemed to be an intangible asset under IAS 38 ‘Intangible Assets’. Additionally,
when assessing revenue to be recognised in future years, the costs of the editing and Router’s liability for these costs should
be assessed.


10 Which of the following costs should be included in valuing inventories of finished goods held by a manufacturing

company, according to IAS2 Inventories?

1 Carriage inwards.

2 Carriage outwards.

3 Depreciation of factory plant.

4 Accounts department costs relating to wages for production employees.

A All four items

B 2 and 3 only

C 1, 3 and 4 only

D 1 and 4 only

正确答案:C


(b) How can Maslow’s theory be applied to the motivation of staff? (5 marks)

正确答案:
(b) This theory is based on the idea that the goals of the individual and the organisation can be integrated and that personal satisfaction can be achieved through the workplace. It also assumes that individuals will achieve self-actualisation through their role in assisting the organisation to achieve its objectives. It follows therefore that work is the principal source of satisfaction.
The theory’s practical application is that managers should recognise that subordinates’ needs are always evolving and increasing, so continued attention to increasing the employees’ personal development, opportunities for advancement and recognition of achievement are essential to keep them motivated.


(ii) The recoverability of the deferred tax asset. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Principal audit procedures – recoverability of deferred tax asset
– Obtain a copy of Bluebell Co’s current tax computation and deferred tax calculations and agree figures to any
relevant tax correspondence and/or underlying accounting records.
– Develop an independent expectation of the estimate to corroborate the reasonableness of management’s estimate.
– Obtain forecasts of profitability and agree that there is sufficient forecast taxable profit available for the losses to be
offset against. Evaluate the assumptions used in the forecast against business understanding. In particular consider
assumptions regarding the growth rate of taxable profit in light of the underlying detrimental trend in profit before
tax.
– Assess the time period it will take to generate sufficient profits to utilise the tax losses. If it is going to take a number
of years to generate such profits, it may be that the recognition of the asset should be restricted.
– Using tax correspondence, verify that there is no restriction on the ability of Bluebell Co to carry the losses forward
and to use the losses against future taxable profits.
Tutorial note: in many tax jurisdictions losses can only be carried forward to be utilised against profits generated
from the same trade. Although in the scenario there is no evidence of such a change in trade, or indeed any kind
of restriction on the use of losses, it is still a valid audit procedure to verify that this is the case


(b) Motivators. (7 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Motivators (or ‘satisfiers’) are those factors directly concerned with the satisfaction gained from the job itself. Herzberg
suggested that these included a sense of achievement, the level of recognition of the employee, the intrinsic value felt at the
job itself, level of responsibility, opportunities for advancement and the status both inside and outside provided by the job or
position held.
Motivators lead to satisfaction because of the need for growth and a sense of self achievement
A lack of motivators leads to over concentration on hygiene factors; that is those negative factors which can be seen and
therefore form. the basis of complaint and concern.


(b) (i) Explain the matters you should consider to determine whether capitalised development costs are

appropriately recognised; and (5 marks)

正确答案:
(b) (i) Materiality
The net book value of capitalised development costs represent 7% of total assets in 2007 (2006 – 7·7%), and is
therefore material. The net book value has increased by 13%, a significant trend.
The costs capitalised during the year amount to $750,000. If it was found that the development cost had been
inappropriately capitalised, the cost should instead have been expensed. This would reduce profit before tax by
$750,000, representing 42% of the year’s profit. This is highly material. It is therefore essential to gather sufficient
evidence to support the assertion that development costs should be recognised as an asset.
In 2007, $750,000 capitalised development costs have been incurred, when added to $160,000 research costs
expensed, total research and development costs are $910,000 which represents 20·2% of total revenue, again
indicating a high level of materiality for this class of transaction.
Relevant accounting standard
Development costs should only be capitalised as an intangible asset if the recognition criteria of IAS 38 Intangible Assets
have been demonstrated in full:
– Intention to complete the intangible asset and use or sell it
– Technical feasibility and ability to use or sell
– Ability to generate future economic benefit
– Availability of technical, financial and other resources to complete
– Ability to measure the expenditure attributable to the intangible asset.
Research costs must be expensed, as should development costs which do not comply with the above criteria. The
auditors must consider how Sci-Tech Co differentiates between research and development costs.
There is risk that not all of the criteria have been demonstrated, especially due to the subjective nature of the
development itself:
– Pharmaceutical development is highly regulated. If the government does not license the product then the product
cannot be sold, and economic benefits will therefore not be received.
– Market research should justify the commercial viability of the product. The launch of a rival product to Flortex
means that market share is likely to be much lower than anticipated, and the ability to sell Flortex is reduced. This
could mean that Flortex will not generate an overall economic benefit if future sales will not recover the research
and development costs already suffered, and yet to be suffered, prior to launch. The existence of the rival product
could indicate that Flortex is no longer commercially viable, in which case the capitalised development costs
relating to Flortex should be immediately expensed.
– The funding on which development is dependent may be withdrawn, indicating that there are not adequate
resources to complete the development of the products. Sci-Tech has failed to meet one of its required key
performance indicators (KPI) in the year ended 30 November 2007, as products valued at 0·8% revenue have
been donated to charity, whereas the required KPI is 1% revenue.
Given that there is currently a breach of the target KPIs, this is likely to result in funding equivalent to 25% of
research and development expenditure being withdrawn. If Sci-Tech Co is unable to source alternative means of
finance, then it would seem that adequate resources may not be available to complete the development of new
products.


(a) Kayte operates in the shipping industry and owns vessels for transportation. In June 2014, Kayte acquired Ceemone whose assets were entirely investments in small companies. The small companies each owned and operated one or two shipping vessels. There were no employees in Ceemone or the small companies. At the acquisition date, there were only limited activities related to managing the small companies as most activities were outsourced. All the personnel in Ceemone were employed by a separate management company. The companies owning the vessels had an agreement with the management company concerning assistance with chartering, purchase and sale of vessels and any technical management. The management company used a shipbroker to assist with some of these tasks.

Kayte accounted for the investment in Ceemone as an asset acquisition. The consideration paid and related transaction costs were recognised as the acquisition price of the vessels. Kayte argued that the vessels were only passive investments and that Ceemone did not own a business consisting of processes, since all activities regarding commercial and technical management were outsourced to the management company. As a result, the acquisition was accounted for as if the vessels were acquired on a stand-alone basis.

Additionally, Kayte had borrowed heavily to purchase some vessels and was struggling to meet its debt obligations. Kayte had sold some of these vessels but in some cases, the bank did not wish Kayte to sell the vessel. In these cases, the vessel was transferred to a new entity, in which the bank retained a variable interest based upon the level of the indebtedness. Kayte’s directors felt that the entity was a subsidiary of the bank and are uncertain as to whether they have complied with the requirements of IFRS 3 Business Combinations and IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements as regards the above transactions. (12 marks)

(b) Kayte’s vessels constitute a material part of its total assets. The economic life of the vessels is estimated to be 30 years, but the useful life of some of the vessels is only 10 years because Kayte’s policy is to sell these vessels when they are 10 years old. Kayte estimated the residual value of these vessels at sale to be half of acquisition cost and this value was assumed to be constant during their useful life. Kayte argued that the estimates of residual value used were conservative in view of an immature market with a high degree of uncertainty and presented documentation which indicated some vessels were being sold for a price considerably above carrying value. Broker valuations of the residual value were considerably higher than those used by Kayte. Kayte argued against broker valuations on the grounds that it would result in greater volatility in reporting.

Kayte keeps some of the vessels for the whole 30 years and these vessels are required to undergo an engine overhaul in dry dock every 10 years to restore their service potential, hence the reason why some of the vessels are sold. The residual value of the vessels kept for 30 years is based upon the steel value of the vessel at the end of its economic life. At the time of purchase, the service potential which will be required to be restored by the engine overhaul is measured based on the cost as if it had been performed at the time of the purchase of the vessel. In the current period, one of the vessels had to have its engine totally replaced after only eight years. Normally, engines last for the 30-year economic life if overhauled every 10 years. Additionally, one type of vessel was having its funnels replaced after 15 years but the funnels had not been depreciated separately. (11 marks)

Required:

Discuss the accounting treatment of the above transactions in the financial statements of Kayte.

Note: The mark allocation is shown against each of the elements above.

Professional marks will be awarded in question 3 for clarity and quality of presentation. (2 marks)

正确答案:

(a) The accounting for the transaction as an asset acquisition does not comply with the requirements of IFRS 3 Business Combinations and should have been accounted as a business combination. This would mean that transaction costs would be expensed, the vessels recognised at fair value, any deferred tax recognised at nominal value and the difference between these amounts and the consideration paid to be recognised as goodwill.

In accordance with IFRS 3, an entity should determine whether a transaction is a business combination by applying the definition of a business in IFRS 3. A business is an integrated set of activities and assets which is capable of being conducted and managed for the purpose of providing a return in the form. of dividends, lower costs or other economic benefits directly to investors or other owners, members or participants. A business consists of inputs and processes applied to those inputs which have the ability to create outputs. Although businesses usually have outputs, outputs are not required to qualify as a business.

When analysing the transaction, the following elements are relevant:

(i) Inputs: Shares in vessel owning companies, charter arrangements, outsourcing arrangements with a management company, and relationships with a shipping broker.

(ii) Processes: Activities regarding chartering and operating the vessels, financing the business, purchase and sales of vessels.

(iii) Outputs: Ceemone would generate revenue from charter agreements and has the ability to gain economic benefit from the vessels.

IFRS 3 states that whether a seller operated a set of assets and activities as a business or intends to operate it as a business is not relevant in evaluating whether it is a business. It is not relevant therefore that some activities were outsourced as Ceemone could chose to conduct and manage the integrated set of assets and activities as a business. As a result, the acquisition included all the elements which constitute a business, in accordance with IFRS 3.

IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements sets out the situation where an investor controls an investee. This is the case, if and only if, the investor has all of the following elements:

(i) power over the investee, that is, the investor has existing rights which give it the ability to direct the relevant activities (the activities which significantly affect the investee’s returns);

(ii) exposure, or rights, to variable returns from its involvement with the investee;

(iii) the ability to use its power over the investee to affect the amount of the investor’s returns.

Where a party has all three elements, then it is a parent; where at least one element is missing, then it is not. In every case, IFRS 10 looks to the substance of the arrangement and not just to its legal form. Each situation needs to be assessed individually. The question arises in this case as to whether the entities created are subsidiaries of the bank. The bank is likely to have power over the investee, may be exposed to variable returns and certainly may have the power to affect the amount of the returns. Thus the bank is likely to have a measure of control but the extent will depend on the constitution of the entity.

(b) Kayte’s calculation of the residual value of the vessels with a 10-year useful life is unacceptable under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment because estimating residual value based on acquisition cost does not comply with the requirements of IAS 16. Kayte should prepare a new model to determine residual value which would take account of broker valuations at the end of each reporting period and which would produce zero depreciation charge when estimated residual value was higher than the carrying amount.

IAS 16 paragraph 6 defines residual value as the estimated amount which an entity would currently obtain from disposal of the asset, after deducting the estimated costs of disposal, if the asset were already at the age and in the condition expected at the end of its useful life.

IAS 16 requires the residual value to be reviewed at least at the end of each financial year end with the depreciable amount of an asset allocated on a systematic basis over its useful life. IAS 16 specifies that the depreciable amount of an asset is determined after deducting its residual value.

Kayte’s original model implied that the residual value was constant for the vessel’s entire useful life. The residual value has to be adjusted especially when an expected sale approaches, and the residual value has to come closer to disposal proceeds minus disposal costs at the end of the useful life. IAS 16 says that in cases when the residual value is greater than the asset’s carrying amount, the depreciation charge is zero unless and until its residual value subsequently decreases to an amount below the asset’s carrying amount. The residual value should be the value at the reporting date as if the vessel were already of the age and in the condition expected at the end of its useful life. An increase in the expected residual value of an asset because of past events will affect the depreciable amount, while expectation of future changes in residual value other than the effects of expected wear and tear will not. There is no guidance in IAS 16 on how to estimate residual value when the useful life is considered to be shorter than the economic life. Undesirable volatility is not a convincing argument to support the accounting treatment, and broker valuations could be a useful starting point to estimate residual value.

As regards the vessels which are kept for the whole of their economic life, a residual value based upon the scrap value of steel is acceptable. Therefore the vessels should be depreciated based upon the cost less the scrap value of steel over the 30-year period. The engine need not be componentised as it will have the same 30-year life if maintained every 10 years. It is likely that the cost of major planned maintenance will increase over the life of a vessel due to inflation and the age of the vessel. This additional cost will be capitalised when incurred and therefore the depreciation charge on these components may be greater in the later stages of a vessel’s life.

When major planned maintenance work is to be undertaken, the cost should be capitalised. The engine overhaul will be capitalised as a new asset which will then be depreciated over the 10-year period to the next overhaul. The depreciation of the original capitalised amount will typically be calculated such that it had a net book value of nil when the overhaul is undertaken.

This is not the case with one vessel, because work was required earlier than expected. In this case, any remaining net book value of the old engine and overhaul cost should be expensed immediately.

The initial carve out of components should include all major maintenance events which are likely to occur over the economic life of the vessel. Sometimes, it may subsequently be found that the initial allocation was insufficiently detailed, in that not all components were identified. This is the case with the funnels. In this situation it is necessary to determine what the net book value of the component would currently be had it been initially identified. This will sometimes require the initial cost to be determined by reference to the replacement cost and the associated accumulated depreciation charge determined using the rate used for the vessel. This is likely to leave a significant net book value in the component being replaced, which will need to be written off at the time the replacement is capitalised.


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第5章


(ii) Describe the evidence you would seek to support the assertion that development costs are technically

feasible. (3 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Evidence supporting the assertion that development costs are technically feasible would include the following:
– Review the results of scientific tests performed on the products, for example, the results of animal or human testing
of the products.
– Discuss any detrimental results of these tests, e.g. harmful side effects, with the scientists working on the project
to determine what corrective action is being taken.
– Enquire whether any licences necessary for continued development and/or commercial production have been
granted by the appropriate regulatory body.
– Compare expected to actual development costs incurred per product being developed. Where actual costs are in
excess of expected costs investigate whether the extra costs have been incurred in order to make good any problems
identified in the development process.
– Review board minutes for relevant discussion of the product development taking place during the year.


(iii) Whether or not you agree with the statement of the marketing director in note (9) above. (5 marks)

Professional marks for appropriateness of format, style. and structure of the report. (4 marks)

正确答案:

(iii) The marketing director is certainly correct in recognising that success is dependent on levels of service quality provided
by HFG to its clients. However, whilst the number of complaints is an important performance measure, it needs to be
used with caution. The nature of a complaint is, very often, far more indicative of the absence, or a lack, of service
quality. For example, the fact that 50 clients complained about having to wait for a longer time than they expected to
access gymnasium equipment is insignificant when compared to an accident arising from failure to maintain properly a
piece of gymnasium equipment. Moreover, the marketing director ought to be aware that the absolute number of
complaints may be misleading as much depends on the number of clients serviced during any given period. Thus, in
comparing the number of complaints received by the three centres then a relative measure of complaints received per
1,000 client days would be far more useful than the absolute number of complaints received.
The marketing director should also be advised that the number of complaints can give a misleading picture of the quality
of service provision since individuals have different levels of willingness to complain in similar situations.
The marketing director seems to accept the current level of complaints but is unwilling to accept any increase above this
level. This is not indicative of a quality-oriented organisation which would seek to reduce the number of complaints over
time via a programme of ‘continuous improvement’.
From the foregoing comments one can conclude that it would be myopic to focus on the number of client complaints
as being the only performance measure necessary to measure the quality of service provision. Other performance
measures which may indicate the level of service quality provided to clients by HFG are as follows:
– Staff responsiveness assumes critical significance in service industries. Hence the time taken to resolve client
queries by health centre staff is an important indicator of the level of service quality provided to clients.
– Staff appearance may be viewed as reflecting the image of the centres.
– The comfort of bedrooms and public rooms including facilities such as air-conditioning, tea/coffee-making and cold
drinks facilities, and office facilities such as e-mail, facsimile and photocopying.
– The availability of services such as the time taken to gain an appointment with a dietician or fitness consultant.
– The cleanliness of all areas within the centres will enhance the reputation of HFG. Conversely, unclean areas will
potentially deter clients from making repeat visits and/or recommendations to friends, colleagues etc.
– The presence of safety measures and the frequency of inspections made regarding gymnasium equipment within
the centres and compliance with legislation are of paramount importance in businesses like that of HFG.
– The achievement of target reductions in weight that have been agreed between centre consultants and clients.
(Other relevant measures would be acceptable.)


2 Plaza, a limited liability company, is a major food retailer. Further to the success of its national supermarkets in the

late 1990s it has extended its operations throughout Europe and most recently to Asia, where it is expanding rapidly.

You are a manager in Andando, a firm of Chartered Certified Accountants. You have been approached by Duncan

Seymour, the chief finance officer of Plaza, to advise on a bid that Plaza is proposing to make for the purchase of

MCM. You have ascertained the following from a briefing note received from Duncan.

MCM provides training in management, communications and marketing to a wide range of corporate clients, including

multi-nationals. The ‘MCM’ name is well regarded in its areas of expertise. MCM is currently wholly-owned by

Frontiers, an international publisher of textbooks, whose shares are quoted on a recognised stock exchange. MCM

has a National and an International business.

The National business comprises 11 training centres. The audited financial statements show revenue of

$12·5 million and profit before taxation of $1·3 million for this geographic segment for the year to 31 December

2004. Most of the National business’s premises are owned or held on long leases. Trainers in the National business

are mainly full-time employees.

The International business has five training centres in Europe and Asia. For these segments, revenue amounted to

$6·3 million and profit before tax $2·4 million for the year to 31 December 2004. Most of the International business’s

premises are held on operating leases. International trade receivables at 31 December 2004 amounted to

$3·7 million. Although the International centres employ some full-time trainers, the majority of trainers provide their

services as freelance consultants.

Required:

(a) Define ‘due diligence’ and describe the nature and purpose of a due diligence review. (4 marks)

正确答案:
2 MCM
(a) Nature and purpose of a ‘due diligence’ review
■ ‘Due diligence’ may be defined as the process of systematically obtaining and assessing information in order to identify
and contain the risks associated with a transaction (e.g. buying a business) to an acceptable level.
■ The nature of such a review is therefore that it involves:
? an investigation (e.g. into a company whose equity may be sold); and
? disclosure (e.g. to a potential investor) of findings.
■ A due diligence assignment consists primarily of inquiry and analytical procedures.
Tutorial note: It will not, for example, routinely involve tests of control or substantive procedures.
* As the timescale for a due diligence review is often relatively short, but wider in scope than the financial statements
(e.g. business prospects, market valuation), there may be no expression of assurance.
■ Its purpose is to find all the facts that would be of material interest to an investor or acquirer of a business. It may not
uncover all such factors but should be designed with a reasonable expectation of so doing.
■ Professional accountants will not be held liable for non-disclosure of information that failed to be uncovered if their
review was conducted with ‘due diligence’.


(iii) the warranty provision. (3 marks)

正确答案:
(iii) Warranty provision
■ Agree the principal assumptions in management’s estimate of liabilities under warranties to the terms of warranty
as set out in contracts for sale of vehicle. For example:
– the period for which warranties are given;
– whether for parts replacement only or parts and labour;
– exclusion clauses, perhaps for vehicles sold into a particular market, or used in a specified industry (e.g. filmmaking).
■ Agree the reasonableness of management’s assumptions in the calculation of the provision. For example, the
proportion of vehicles for which claims are made within three months, three to six months, six to nine months, etc.
■ Substantiate the economic reality of the basis of management’s calculations. For example:
– agree the number of vehicles sold each month to a summary sales report;
– agree the calculation of average cost of a repair under warranty to job records;
– test costs of repair on a sample basis (e.g. parts replaced to price lists and labour charges to hours worked
(per job records) and charge-out rates).
■ Consider the reasonableness of management’s estimate by comparing:
– the actual cost of after-date repairs (say for three months) against the appropriate proportion of the provision
made;
– current year provision per vehicle sold against prior provision per vehicle sold.
■ Assess management’s ability to make reliable estimates in this area by comparing last year’s provision with the
actual repairs under warranty costs incurred during the year in respect of sales made in previous years.
Tutorial note: The basis of management’s estimate may tend to overstate or understate the provision required
and should be revised accordingly.
■ Agree the extent to which the provision takes account of (has been reduced by) any recourse to suppliers (e.g. in
respect of faulty parts). For example:
– by reviewing terms of purchases from major suppliers;
– by examining records of replacement parts received free of charge.


(ii) Determine whether your decision in (b)(i) would change if you were to use the Maximin and Minimax

regret decision criteria. Your answer should be supported by relevant workings. (6 marks)

正确答案:


(b) Both divisions have recognised the need for a strategic alliance to help them achieve a successful entry into

European markets.

Critically evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of the divisions using strategic alliances to develop their

respective businesses in Europe. (15 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Johnson, Scholes and Whittington define a strategic alliance as ‘where two or more organisations share resources and
activities to pursue a strategy’. There are a number of types of alliance ranging from a formal joint venture through to networks
where there is collaboration but no formal agreement. The type of strategic alliance will be affected by how quickly market
conditions are changing – swift rates of change may require flexible less formal types of alliance and determine whether
specific dedicated resources are required or whether the partners can use existing resources. Johnson, Scholes and
Whittington argue that for an alliance to be successful there needs to be a clear strategic purpose and senior management
support; compatibility between the partners at all levels – this may be complicated if it is a cross-border alliance; time spent
defining and meeting performance expectations including clear goals, governance and organisational arrangements; and
finally trust both in terms of respective competences and trustworthiness.

6D–ENGAA
Paper 3.5
6D–ENGAA
Paper 3.5
The advantages that may be gained by a successful strategic alliance include creating a joint operation that has a ‘critical
mass’ that may lead to lower costs or an improved offer to the customer. It may also allow each partner to specialise in areas
where they have a particular advantage or competence. Interestingly, alliances are often entered into where a company is
seeking to enter new geographical markets, as is the case with both divisions. The partner brings local knowledge and
expertise in distribution, marketing and customer support. A good strategic alliance will also enable the partners to learn from
one another and develop competences that may be used in other markets. Often firms looking to develop an e-business will
use an alliance with a partner with experience in website development. Once its e-business is up and running a firm may
eventually decide to bring the website design skills in-house and acquire the partner.
Disadvantages of alliances range from over-dependence on the partner, not developing own core competences and a tendency
for them not to have a defined end date. Clearly there is a real danger of the partner eventually becoming a competitor.
In assessing the suitability for each division in using a strategic alliance to enter European markets one clearly has to analyse
the very different positions of the divisions in terms of what they can offer a potential partner. The earlier analysis suggests
that the Shirtmaster division may have the greater difficulty in attracting a partner. One may seriously question the feasibility
of using the Shirtmaster brand in Europe and the competences the division has in terms of manufacturing and selling to large
numbers of small independent UK clothing retailers would seem inappropriate to potential European partners. Ironically, if
the management consultant recommends that the Shirtmaster division sources some or all of its shirts from low cost
manufacturers in Europe this may provide a reason for setting up an alliance with such a manufacturer.
The prospects of developing a strategic alliance in the Corporate Clothing division are much more favourable. The division
has developed a value added service for its corporate customers, indeed its relationship with its customers can be seen as a
relatively informal network or alliance and there seems every chance this could be replicated with large corporate customers
in Europe. Equally, there may be European workwear companies looking to grow and develop who would welcome sharingthe Corporate Clothing division’s expertise.


(b) What styles of managing change would you recommend John use to bring about the desired change?

(8 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Choosing the right combination of styles to manage the desired change will be an interesting challenge to John as the principal
change agent. Education and communication will be vital in getting the police officers to buy in to the need for change. It is
only by changing their perception of the nature and size of the city centre problem that any change in activity will be possible.
Communication will also be important to keep the other stakeholders informed and on board – in this case the mayor is likely
to be a key player.
Having convinced the police officers of the need for and achievability of the change John has then to motivate them to become
involved. This is achieved through collaboration and participation. John will determine the extent to which officers or task
groups are involved in various parts in the change process. Here the emphasis is on getting a shared ownership of the problem
and getting better solutions to parts of the problem. As with education and communication this may be a time-consuming
process.
Intervention by John may be needed at various points in the change process; he may delegate certain activities to others but
retain the coordination and control of the project. On occasions it may be necessary for John to take direct control over the
process in order to clarify and speed-up the whole process but such direction may cause a lack of acceptance and a poorly
conceived strategy. Finally, in times of crisis resort may have to be made to coercion/edict. This is likely to be the leastsuccessful means of managing change and should only be used when exceptional circumstances are present.


(iii) Lateral or horizontal. (3 marks)

正确答案:
(iii) Lateral or horizontal. Traditional communication assumes a hierarchical structure with only vertical communication,however horizontal communication has become important and necessary in less formal organisations. It takes the form. of coordination with departmental managers or supervisors meeting regularly, problem solving with department members meeting to resolve an issue or information sharing and it also describes interdepartmental sharing of ideas or conflict resolution where there is a need to resolve interdepartmental friction.


15 Which of the following statements about intangible assets are correct?

1 If certain criteria are met, research expenditure must be recognised as an intangible asset.

2 Goodwill may not be revalued upwards.

3 Internally generated goodwill should not be capitalised.

A 2 and 3 only

B 1 and 3 only

C 1 and 2 only

D All three statements are correct

正确答案:A


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第6章


(ii) Write a letter to Donald advising him on the most tax efficient manner in which he can relieve the loss

incurred in the year to 31 March 2007. Your letter should briefly outline the types of loss relief available

and explain their relative merits in Donald’s situation. Assume that Donald will have no source of income

other than the business in the year of assessment 2006/07 and that any income he earned on a parttime

basis while at university was always less than his annual personal allowance. (9 marks)

Assume that the corporation tax rates and allowances for the financial year 2004 and the income tax rates

and allowances for 2004/05 apply throughout this question.

Relevant retail price index figures are:

January 1998 159·5

April 1998 162·6

正确答案:

(ii) [Donald’s address] [Firm’s address]
Dear Donald [Date]
I understand that you have incurred a tax loss in your first year of trading. The following options are available in respect
of this loss.
1. The first option is to use the trading loss against other forms of income in the same year. If such a claim is made,
losses are offset against income before personal allowances.
Any excess loss can still be offset against capital gains of the year. However, any offset against capital gains is
before both taper relief and annual exemptions.


(ii) how effective delegation might be achieved; (6 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Effective delegation can be achieved by assigning agreed tasks to the subordinate, ensuring that resources are allocated and by specifying expected performance levels and ensuring that they are understood. In addition, it is necessary to ensure that the subordinate has the ability and experience to undertake the tasks by maintaining frequent contact and ensuring that the subordinate has authority to do the job. Sufficient authority must be delegated to fulfil the task. This authority in turn may be specific or general; the scenario suggests that the authority of the managers and supervisors is specific. The subordinate should not refer decisions upwards, and the superior should not expect this. In addition there should be no doubts over boundaries; they must be clearly defined as to who holds what authority and who accounts to whom. Therefore there must be clarity as to departmental functions and individual authority, which is at the root of the problem at Flavours Fine Foods.


(b) Draft a report suitable for inclusion in a Management Commentary for Jones and Cousin which deals with:

(i) the key risks and relationships of the business (9 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Jones and Cousin, a public quoted company
Annual Report 2006
Management Commentary
(i) Introduction
Jones and Cousin is a global company engaged in the medical products sector. This report provides information to assist
the assessment of strategies adopted by the company and the future potential of those strategies.
Principal risks and relationships
Trends:
Expenditure in the medical sector is often controlled by governments and is, therefore, affected by government policy.
Thus the Group is largely dependent on governments providing funds for health care. Product innovation and the
resultant increase in competition could lead to downward pressure on the price of goods and a decline in the Group’s
market share which could affect the operational results and hinder the growth of the Group.
Currency fluctuations:
The Group reports its results using the dollar as its functional currency. As there is only five per cent of the business in
the country of incorporation, fluctuations in exchange rates may have a material effect on the Group. If the exchange
rate of the dollar strengthens against the Dinar and Euro, then group turnover and operating profit would be lower on
translation into dollars. As the manufacturing base is worldwide, the finished products when sold to the Group’s selling
operations could expose the Group to fluctuations in exchange rates.
Product liability claims and loss of reputation:
Although the products are not inherently high risk, there is a possibility of malfunction which could entail risk of product
liability claims or recalls on the product. Both these events could be costly and harmful to the Group’s reputation which
is dependent upon product safety. Any product liability claims or product recalls would have a negative effect on cash
flow and profit, and are likely to adversely affect sales of the product.
Highly Competitive markets:
The principal business units compete across many diverse geographic and product markets. Technical advances and
product innovations by competitors could adversely affect the operating results. Some of the Group’s competitors could
have greater resources and may be able to sell products on more competitive terms. If the Group were to lose market
share or have lower than expected sales growth, there could be an adverse impact on the Group’s share price and future
strategies.
Patents and Products;
The Group protects its intellectual rights in its products and opposes third parties where there is a conflict with the
group’s patents. The Group may itself be subject to patent infringement claims. If the Group failed to protect its position,
its competitive position could suffer and operating results be harmed. Similarly if any claims are successful then damages
may have to be paid, or non patent infringing products developed, both of which would adversely affect results.
Product innovations will occur constantly in the sector and, therefore, the Group has to continually develop products to
satisfy consumer needs and to provide cost and other advantages. Not all products will be brought to the market for
several reasons, including failure to receive regulatory approval or infringement of patents. Thus there is a significant
cost implication in the research and development of products. However, if new products do not remain competitive with
competitors’ products, then Group sales revenue could decline.
Relationships:
The Group has developed a set of corporate social responsibility principles which is the responsibility of the Board of
Directors, and the Managing Director in particular. The Group contributes to the treatment and recovery of patients within
its product range by providing solutions to health care needs. Although having a relatively minor impact on the
environment compared to some companies, any obsolete products are disposed of in an environmentally friendly way
so as not to potentially compromise the health of its customers. Reusable materials are used in the manufacture of
products.
The Group fosters ethical relationships with its suppliers and encourages them to share the same social and
environmental standards. In this way a long term relationship is expected to be developed with suppliers.
The Group’s employment policies are based on equality of opportunity and the performance standards and goals are
communicated to the employees. Jones and Cousin is committed to the provision of continuous training and
development and open communication with its employees. Additionally the group encourages its subsidiaries to reinvestprofits in local educational projects.


(c) State the tax consequences for both Glaikit Limited and Alasdair if he borrows money from the company, as

proposed, on 1 January 2006. (3 marks)

正确答案:
(c) Alasdair is not employed, nor is he a director, of Glaikit Limited. As he holds 25% of the shares in Glaikit Limited, he is a
participator in a close company and therefore the special close company provisions will apply. Thus Alsadair will be taxed
under the ‘loans to participator’ rules.
When the loan is written off, the amount waived will be treated as a gross distribution of £16,667 (£15,000 x 10/9). This
will be assessed in the tax year in which the loan is written off (expected to be 2006/07 or 2007/08). To the extent that this
additional income makes Alasdair a higher rate taxpayer in that year, he will have to pay additional income tax of 32·5% of
the gross amount, less the available 10% tax credit.
From the company’s perspective, Glaikit Limited will have to pay 25% of the net value of any loan made to Alasdair which
has not been repaid to the company (or written off) within nine months of the year end. As the loan will remain outstanding
as at 31 March 2006, Glaikit Limited will have to pay £3,750 (25% x £15,000) to the Revenue by 1 January 2007. This
amount will not be repaid until the loan is repaid or written off. This usually takes place nine months after the year end in
which the loan is written off, so Glaikit Limited should ensure that any write-off occurs prior to 31 March 2007, or else the
repayment may be delayed for up to one year.
As the loan is tax free, the Revenue may also seek to tax Alasdair under the beneficial loan rules. If the Revenue were to seek
an assessment in this manner, the value of the benefit would be calculated and taxed as a deemed distribution. However, as
Alasdair has no connection with the company other than as an investor, it is unlikely that the beneficial loan benefit will lead
to such a deemed distribution.


(b) Anne is experiencing some tension due to the conflict between her duties and responsibilities as an employee of

Fillmore Pierce and as a qualified professional accountant.

Required:

(i) Compare and contrast her duties and responsibilities in the two roles of employee and professional

accountant. (6 marks)

正确答案:
(b) (i) Contrasting roles
Joint professional and organisational roles are common to most professionals (medical professionals, for example).
Although the roles are rarely in conflict, in most cases it is assumed that any professional’s primary duty is to the public
interest rather than the organisation.
Organisational role
As a member of the staff of Fillmore Pierce, Anne is a part of the hierarchy of an organisation and answerable to her
seniors. This means that under normal circumstances, she should comply with the requirements of her seniors. As an
employee, Anne is ultimately accountable to the principals of the organisation (the partners in an audit firm or the
shareholders in a company), and, she is subject to the cultural norms and reasonable expectations of work-group
membership. It is expected that her behaviour at work will conform. to the social and cultural norms of the organisation
and that she will be efficient and hard working in her job.
Professional role
As an accountant, Anne is obliged to maintain the high professional and ethical standards of her profession. If her
profession is underpinned by an ethical or professional code, she will need to comply with that in full. She needs to
manage herself and co-ordinate her activities so as to meet professional standards. In this, she needs to ensure that she
informs herself in current developments in her field and undertakes continuing professional development as required by
her professional accounting body. She is and will remain accountable to her professional body in terms of continued
registration and professional behaviour. In many cases, this accountability will be more important than an accountability
to a given employer as it is the membership of the professional body that validates Anne’s professional skills.


9 Which of the following items must be disclosed in a company’s published financial statements (including notes)

if material, according to IAS1 Presentation of financial statements?

1 Finance costs.

2 Staff costs.

3 Depreciation and amortisation expense.

4 Movements on share capital.

A 1 and 3 only

B 1, 2 and 4 only

C 2, 3 and 4 only

D All four items

正确答案:D


(c) Outline the problems with references. (7 marks)

(15 marks)

正确答案:
Part (c)
There can be significant problems with references, these include the fact that most referees are well known to the applicant and
hesitate to say anything critical. However, the more skilful reference reader learns to look for what is conspicuous by omission
although there is always the risk that the writer merely forgot.
Often there are glowing tributes designed to aid the candidate on their way and some can be too ambiguous to be useful.
It is also important to note that references are poor predictors of future performance, are time consuming for the referee and the
subsequent reader. A particular problem is that employers who want to rid themselves of unsatisfactory employees could write an
enthusiastic reference, or at best one which leaves a lot unsaid.
However, care should be taken when providing references. Potentially, there can be legal consequences if a reference is misleading
or misrepresents the person for whom the reference is provided.
In addition, problems can arise when references are sought too early in the recruitment process and therefore breach confidentiality.


(c) For commercial reasons, Damian believes that it would be sensible to place a new holding company, Bold plc,

over the existing company, Linden Limited. Bold plc would also be unquoted and would acquire the existing

Linden Limited shares in exchange for the issue of its own shares.

If the new structure is implemented, Bold plc will provide management services to Linden Limited, but the

amount that will be charged for these services is yet to be determined.

Required:

(i) State the capital gains tax (CGT) issues that Damian should be aware of before disposing of his shares

in Linden Limited to Bold plc. Your answer should include details of any conditions that will need to be

satisfied if an immediate charge to tax is to be avoided. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(c) (i) The proposed transaction broadly falls under the ‘paper for paper’ rules. Where this is the case, chargeable gains do not
arise. Instead, the new holding stands in the shoes (and inherits the base cost) of the original holding.
The company issuing the new shares must:
(i) end up with more than 25% of the ordinary share capital or a majority of the voting power of the old company,
OR
(ii) make a general offer to shareholders in the old company with a condition which would give the acquiring company
control of the company if accepted.
The exchange must be for bona fide commercial reasons and not have as its main purpose (or one of its main purposes)
the avoidance of capital gains tax or corporation tax.
The issue of shares by Bold plc satisfies these conditions, thus Damian, as a shareholder of Linden Limited, will not be
taxed on the exchange of shares.


(b) Discuss the statements of the operational manager of Bonlandia and assess their implications for SSH.

(4 marks)

正确答案:
(b) In a market place such as that in which SSH competes, product and service quality assumes critical significance. Quality is
a key determinant of the financial results and the level of competitiveness achieved by SSH. This will always be the case and
therefore quality may be viewed as a strategic necessity if SSH is to prosper in the future. Therefore, the statements of the
manager of Bonlandia operations are myopic at best and unethical at worst! Businesses use software in a variety of different
ways but poor quality software can do serious harm to businesses. Much will depend on the extent to which a business uses
its information for strategic reasons as opposed to meeting operational needs. The more a business uses its information
systems for strategic reasons then the greater the potential damage suffered as a consequence of poor quality software. It is
wrong for the manager of Bonlandia operations to knowingly promote the installation of poor quality business software in
clients’ businesses. The effects can be costly to clients in terms of poor planning, control and decision-making with potential
losses of client goodwill and reputation.


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第7章


(b) Using the TARA framework, construct four possible strategies for managing the risk presented by Product 2.

Your answer should describe each strategy and explain how each might be applied in the case.

(10 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Risk management strategies and Chen Products
Risk transference strategy
This would involve the company accepting a portion of the risk and seeking to transfer a part to a third party. Although an
unlikely possibility given the state of existing claims, insurance against future claims would serve to limit Chen’s potential
losses and place a limit on its losses. Outsourcing manufacture may be a way of transferring risk if the ourtsourcee can be
persuaded to accept some of the product liability.
Risk avoidance strategy
An avoidance strategy involves discontinuing the activity that is exposing the company to risk. In the case of Chen this would
involve ceasing production of Product 2. This would be pursued if the impact (hazard) and probability of incurring an
acceptable level of liability were both considered to be unacceptably high and there were no options for transference or
reduction.
Risk reduction strategy
A risk reduction strategy involves seeking to retain a component of the risk (in order to enjoy the return assumed to be
associated with that risk) but to reduce it and thereby limit its ability to create liability. Chen produces four products and it
could reconfigure its production capacity to produce proportionately more of Products 1, 3 and 4 and proportionately less of
Product 2. This would reduce Product 2 in the overall portfolio and therefore Chen’s exposure to its risks. This would need
to be associated with instructions to other departments (e.g. sales and marketing) to similarly reconfigure activities to sell
more of the other products and less of Product 2.
Risk acceptance strategy
A risk acceptance strategy involves taking limited or no action to reduce the exposure to risk and would be taken if the returns
expected from bearing the risk were expected to be greater than the potential liabilities. The case mentions that Product 2 is
highly profitable and it may be that the returns attainable by maintaining and even increasing Product 2’s sales are worth the
liabilities incurred by compensation claims. This is a risk acceptance strategy.


(b) ‘opinion shopping’; (5 marks)

正确答案:
(b) ‘Opinion shopping’
Explanation of term
‘Opinion shopping’ occurs when management approach auditing firms (other than their incumbent auditors) to ask their views
on the application of accounting standards or principles to specific circumstances or transactions.
Ethical risks
The reasons for ‘opinion shopping’ may be:
■ to find alternative auditors; or
■ to get advice on a matter of contention with the incumbent auditor.
The member who is not the entity’s auditor must be alert to the possibility that their opinion – if it differs from that of the
incumbent auditor – may create undue pressure on the incumbent auditor’s judgement and so threaten the objectivity of the
audit.
Furthermore, by aligning with the interests of management when negotiating taking on an engagement, an incoming auditor
may compromise their objectivity even before the audit work commences. There is a risk that the audit fee might be seen to
be contingent upon a ‘favourable’ opinion (that is, the audit judgement coinciding with management’s preferences).
Employed professional accountants (accountants in industry) who support their company’s management in seeking second
opinions may call into question their integrity and professional behaviour.
Sufficiency of current ethical guidance
Current ethical guidance requires that when asked to provide a ‘second opinion’ a member should seek to minimise the risk
of giving inappropriate guidance, by ensuring that they have access to all relevant information.
The member should therefore:
■ ascertain why their opinion is being sought;
■ contact the auditor to provide any relevant facts;
■ with the entity’s permission, provide the auditor with a copy of their opinion.
The member’s opinion is more likely to differ if it is based on information which is different (or incomplete) as compared with
that available to the incumbent auditor. The member should therefore decline to act if permission to communicate with the
auditor is not given.
‘Opinion shopping’ might be less prevalent if company directors had no say in the appointment and remuneration of auditors.
If audit appointments were made by an independent body ‘doubtful accounting practices’ would (arguably) be less of a
negotiating factor. However, to be able to appoint auditors to multi-national/global corporations, such measures would require
the backing of regulatory bodies worldwide.
Statutory requirements in this area could also be more stringent. For example, an auditor may be required to deposit a
‘statement of circumstances’ (or a statement of ‘no circumstances’) in the event that they are removed from office or resign.
However, disclosure could be made more public if, when a change in accounting policy coincides with a change of auditors,
the financial statements and auditor’s report highlight the change and the auditors state their concurrence (or otherwise) with
the change. This could be made a statutory requirement and International Standards on Auditing (ISAs) amended to give
guidance on how auditors should report on changes.
Further, if the incoming auditor were to have a statutory right of access to the files and working papers of the outgoing auditors
they would be able to make a better and informed assessment of the desirability of the client and also appreciate the validity
(or otherwise) of any ‘statement’ issued by the outgoing auditor.


(iii) A statement on the importance of confidentiality in the financing of the early stage working capital needs

and an explanation of how this conflicts with the duty of transparency in matters of corporate

governance. (6 marks)

Professional marks for layout, logical flow and persuasiveness of the statement. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(iii) Importance of confidentiality in the financing of the project and the normal duty of transparency.
I have been asked to include a statement in my remarks on the balance between our duty to be transparent whenever
possible and the need for discretion and confidentiality in some situations. In the case of our initial working capital needs
for the Giant Dam Project, the importance of confidentiality in financing is due to the potential for adverse publicity that
may arise for the lender. It is important that R&M have the project adequately financed, especially in the early stages
before the interim payments from the client become fully effective.
In general, of course, we at R&M attempt to observe the highest standards of corporate governance and this involves
adopting a default position of transparency rather than concealment wherever possible. We recognise that transparency
is important to underpin investor confidence and to provide investors with the information they need to make fund
allocation decisions.
Whilst it is normal to disclose the amount of debt we carry at any given point (on the balance sheet), it is rarely normal
practice to disclose the exact sources of those loans. In the case of the financing of initial working capital for the Giant
Dam Project, I’m sure you will realise that in this unique situation, disclosure of the lender’s identity could threaten the
progress of the project. For this reason we must resist any attempts to release this into the public domain. We are aware
of one pressure group that is actively seeking to discover this information in order to disrupt the project’s progress and
we shall be taking all internal measures necessary to ensure they do not obtain the information.
Thank you for listening.


(b) Identify and explain THREE approaches that the directors of Moffat Ltd might apply in assessing the

QUALITATIVE benefits of the proposed investment in a new IT system. (6 marks)

正确答案:
(b) One approach that the directors of Moffat Ltd could adopt would be to ignore the qualitative benefits that may arise on the
basis that there is too much subjectivity involved in their assessment. The problem that this causes is that the investment will
probably look unattractive since all costs will be included in the evaluation whereas significant benefits and savings will have
been ignored. Hence such an approach is lacking in substance and is not recommended.
An alternative approach would involve attempting to attribute values to each of the identified benefits that are qualitative in
nature. Such an approach will necessitate the use of management estimates in order to derive the cash flows to be
incorporated in a cost benefit analysis. The problems inherent in this approach include gaining consensus among interested
parties regarding the footing of the assumptions from which estimated cash flows have been derived. Furthermore, if the
proposed investment does take place then it may well be impossible to prove that the claimed benefits of the new system
have actually been realised.
Perhaps the preferred approach is to acknowledge the existence of qualitative benefits and attempt to assess them in a
reasonable manner acceptable to all parties including the company’s bank. The financial evaluation would then not only
incorporate ‘hard’ facts relating to costs and benefits that are quantitative in nature, but also would include details of
qualitative benefits which management consider exist but have not attempted to assess in financial terms. Such benefits might
include, for example, the average time saved by location managers in analysing information during each operating period.
Alternatively the management of Moffat Ltd could attempt to express qualitative benefits in specific terms linked to a hierarchy
of organisational requirements. For example, qualitative benefits could be categorised as being:
(1) Essential to the business
(2) Very useful attributes
(3) Desirable, but not essential
(4) Possible, if funding is available
(5) Doubtful and difficult to justify.


(ii) Identify the points that must be confirmed and any action necessary in order for capital treatment to

apply to the transaction. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Ensuring capital treatment
For the capital treatment to apply, a number of conditions need to be satisfied such that the following points need to be
confirmed.
– The business of Acrux Ltd consists wholly or mainly of the carrying on of a trade as opposed to the making of
investments.
– Spica is UK resident and ordinarily resident despite living in both the UK and Solaris.
– The transaction is being carried out for the purpose of the company’s trade and is not part of a scheme intended
to avoid tax. This is likely to be the case as HMRC accept that a management disagreement over the running of
the company has an adverse effect on the running of the business.
In addition, Spica must have owned the shares for at least five years so the transaction must not take place until
1 October 2008.


(c) Acting as an external consultant to Semer, discuss the validity of the proposed strategy to increase gearing, and explain whether or not the estimates produced in (b) above are likely to be accurate. (10 marks)

正确答案:

(c) Report on the proposed adjustment of gearing through the repurchase of ordinary shares
The effect of capital structure on the value of a company is not fully understood.
Increasing the proportion of debt in the capital structure may reduce the overall cost of capital due to the interest on debt being a tax allowable expense. Even if a company is in a non-tax paying position, mixing additional low cost debt with relatively expensive equity might reduce the weighted average cost of capital. In such circumstances the proposed strategy to increase gearing would have some validity. However, increasing gearing can also bring problems. Risk to investors, and therefore the required returns on equity and debt, will increase as gearing increases. Very high levels of gearing might lead to
direct and indirect bankruptcy costs, with a detrimental effect on cash flow and corporate value. Any benefits from increasing the proportion of debt in the capital structure will be to some extent offset as a result of increased risk with high gearing.
The revised estimates of the effect on the cost of capital and value of Semer are not likely to be accurate. Reasons for this include:
(i) The company will not be able to repurchase the necessary shares at their current market value. Approximately £240 million value of equity would need to be repurchased, or more than one third of the existing market value of equity.
As repurchases take place it is likely that the share price will significantly increase.
(ii) The cost of debt is unlikely to remain constant. As more debt is issued lenders will demand a higher interest rate to compensate for the extra risk resulting from higher gearing levels. The cost of equity will also increase with higher gearing. These effects will increase the weighted average cost of capital to a higher level than that estimated.
(iii) The precise market values of debt and equity after the repurchase are unknown, and again will reflect the market attitude
to the new risk of the higher gearing.
The value of the company is likely to be much lower than that estimated, as the weighted average cost of capital is likely to be underestimated.


(c) Define ‘market risk’ for Mr Allejandra and explain why Gluck and Goodman’s market risk exposure is

increased by failing to have an effective audit committee. (5 marks)

正确答案:
(c) Market risk
Definition of market risk
Market risks are those arising from any of the markets that a company operates in. Most common examples are those risks
from resource markets (inputs), product markets (outputs) or capital markets (finance).
[Tutorial note: markers should exercise latitude in allowing definitions of market risk. IFRS 7, for example, offers a technical
definition: ‘Market risk is the risk that the fair value or cash flows of a financial instrument will fluctuate due to changes in
market prices. Market risk reflects interest rate risk, currency risk, and other price risks’.]
Why non-compliance increases market risk
The lack of a fully compliant committee structure (such as having a non-compliant audit committee) erodes investor
confidence in the general governance of a company. This will, over time, affect share price and hence company value. Low
company value will threaten existing management (possibly with good cause in the case of Gluck and Goodman) and make
the company a possible takeover target. It will also adversely affect price-earnings and hence market confidence in Gluck and
Goodman’s shares. This will make it more difficult to raise funds from the stock market.


(b) Explain the matters that should be considered when planning the nature and scope of the examination of

Cusiter Co’s forecast balance sheet and income statement as prepared for the bank. (7 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Matters to be considered
Tutorial note: Candidates at this level must appreciate that the matters to be considered when planning the nature and
scope of the examination are not the same matters to be considered when deciding whether or not to accept an
engagement. The scenario clearly indicates that the assignment is being undertaken by the current auditor rendering any
‘pre-engagement’/‘professional etiquette’ considerations irrelevant to answering this question.
This PFI has been prepared to show an external user, the bank, the financial consequences of Cusiter’s plans to help the bank
in making an investment decision. If Cusiter is successful in its loan application the PFI provides a management tool against
which the results of investing in the plant and equipment can be measured.
The PFI is unpublished rather than published. That is, it is prepared at the specific request of a third party, the bank. It will
not be published to users of financial information in general.
The auditor’s report on the PFI will provide only negative assurance as to whether the assumptions provide a reasonable basis
for the PFI and an opinion whether the PFI is:
■ properly prepared on the basis of the assumptions; and
■ presented in accordance with the relevant financial reporting framework.
The nature of the engagement is an examination to obtain evidence concerning:
■ the reasonableness and consistency of assumptions made;
■ proper preparation (on the basis of stated assumptions); and
■ consistent presentation (with historical financial statements, using appropriate accounting principles).
Such an examination is likely to take the form. of inquiry, analytical procedures and corroboration.
The period of time covered by the prospective financial information is two years. The assumptions for 2008 are likely to be
more speculative than for 2007, particularly in relation to the impact on earnings, etc of the investment in new plant and
equipment.
The forecast for the year to 31 December 2007 includes an element of historical financial information (because only part of
this period is in the future) hence actual evidence should be available to verify the first three months of the forecast (possibly
more since another three-month period will expire at the end of the month).
Cusiter management’s previous experience in preparing PFI will be relevant. For example, in making accounting estimates
(e.g. for provisions, impairment losses, etc) or preparing cash flow forecasts (e.g. in support of the going concern assertion).
The basis of preparation of the forecast. For example, the extent to which it comprises:
■ proforma financial information (i.e. historical financial information adjusted for the effects of the planned loan and capital
expenditure transaction);
■ new information and assumptions about future performance (e.g. the operating capacity of the new equipment, sales
generated, etc).
The nature and scope of any standards/guidelines under which the PFI has been prepared is likely to assist the auditor in
discharging their responsibilities to report on it. Also, ISAE 3400 The Examination of Prospective Financial Information,
establishes standards and provides guidance on engagements to examine and report on PFI including examination
procedures.
The planned nature and scope of the examination is likely to take into account the time and fee budgets for the assignments
as adjusted for any ‘overlap’ with audit work. For example, the examination of the PFI is likely to draw on the auditor’s
knowledge of the business obtained in auditing the financial statements to 31 December 2006. Analytical procedures carried
out in respect of the PFI may provide evidence relevant to the 31 December 2007 audit.


(iii) The extent to which Amy will be subject to income tax in the UK on her earnings in respect of duties

performed for Cutlass Inc and the travel costs paid for by that company. (5 marks)

Appropriateness of format and presentation of the report and the effectiveness with which its advice is

communicated. (2 marks)

Note:

You should assume that the income tax rates and allowances for the tax year 2006/07 and the corporation tax

rates and allowances for the financial year 2006 apply throughout this questio

正确答案:
(iii) Amy’s UK income tax position
Amy will remain UK resident and ordinarily resident as she is not leaving the UK permanently or for a complete tax year
under a full time contract of employment. Accordingly, she will continue to be subject to UK tax on her worldwide income
including her earnings in respect of the duties she performs for Cutlass Inc. The earnings from these duties will also be
taxable in Sharpenia as the income arises in that country.
The double tax treaty between the UK and Sharpenia will either exempt the employment income in one of the two
countries or give double tax relief for the tax paid in Sharpenia. The double tax relief will be the lower of the UK tax and
the Sharpenian tax on the income from Cutlass Inc.
Amy will not be subject to UK income tax on the expenses borne by Cutlass Inc in respect of her flights to and from
Sharpenia provided her journeys are wholly and exclusively for the purposes of performing her duties in Sharpenia.
The amounts paid by Cutlass Inc in respect of Amy’s family travelling to Sharpenia will be subject to UK income tax as
Amy will not be absent from the UK for a continuous period of at least 60 days.


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第8章


4 You are an audit manager in Smith & Co, a firm of Chartered Certified Accountants. You have recently been made

responsible for reviewing invoices raised to clients and for monitoring your firm’s credit control procedures. Several

matters came to light during your most recent review of client invoice files:

Norman Co, a large private company, has not paid an invoice from Smith & Co dated 5 June 2007 for work in respect

of the financial statement audit for the year ended 28 February 2007. A file note dated 30 November 2007 states

that Norman Co is suffering poor cash flows and is unable to pay the balance. This is the only piece of information

in the file you are reviewing relating to the invoice. You are aware that the final audit work for the year ended

28 February 2008, which has not yet been invoiced, is nearly complete and the audit report is due to be issued

imminently.

Wallace Co, a private company whose business is the manufacture of industrial machinery, has paid all invoices

relating to the recently completed audit planning for the year ended 31 May 2008. However, in the invoice file you

notice an invoice received by your firm from Wallace Co. The invoice is addressed to Valerie Hobson, the manager

responsible for the audit of Wallace Co. The invoice relates to the rental of an area in Wallace Co’s empty warehouse,

with the following comment handwritten on the invoice: ‘rental space being used for storage of Ms Hobson’s

speedboat for six months – she is our auditor, so only charge a nominal sum of $100’. When asked about the invoice,

Valerie Hobson said that the invoice should have been sent to her private address. You are aware that Wallace Co

sometimes uses the empty warehouse for rental income, though this is not the main trading income of the company.

In the ‘miscellaneous invoices raised’ file, an invoice dated last week has been raised to Software Supply Co, not a

client of your firm. The comment box on the invoice contains the note ‘referral fee for recommending Software Supply

Co to several audit clients regarding the supply of bespoke accounting software’.

Required:

Identify and discuss the ethical and other professional issues raised by the invoice file review, and recommend

what action, if any, Smith & Co should now take in respect of:

(a) Norman Co; (8 marks)

正确答案:
4 Smith & Co
(a) Norman Co
The invoice is 12 months old and it appears doubtful whether the amount outstanding is recoverable. The fact that such an
old debt is unsettled indicates poor credit control by Smith & Co. Part of good practice management is to run a profitable,
cash generating audit function. The debt should not have been left outstanding for such a long period. It seems that little has
been done to secure payment since the file note was attached to the invoice in November 2007.
There is also a significant ethical issue raised. Overdue fees are a threat to objectivity and independence. Due to Norman Co
not yet paying for the 2007 year end audit, it could be perceived that the audit has been performed for free. Alternatively the
amount outstanding could be perceived as a loan to the client, creating a self-interest threat to independence.
The audit work for the year ended 28 February 2008 should not have been carried out without some investigation into the
unpaid invoice relating to the prior year audit. This also represents a self-interest threat – if fees are not collected before the
audit report is issued, an unmodified report could be seen as enhancing the prospect of securing payment. It seems that a
check has not been made to see if the prior year fee has been paid prior to the audit commencing.
It is also concerning that the audit report for the 2008 year end is about to be issued, but no invoice has been raised relating
to the work performed. To maximise cash inflow, the audit firm should invoice the client as soon as possible for work
performed.
Norman Co appears to be suffering financial distress. In this case there is a valid commercial reason why payment has not
been made – the client simply lacks cash. While this fact does not eliminate the problems noted above, it means that the
auditors can continue so long as adequate ethical safeguards are put in place, and after the monetary significance of the
amount outstanding has been evaluated.
It should also be considered whether Norman Co’s financial situation casts any doubt over the going concern of the company.
Continued cash flow problems are certainly a financial indicator of going concern problems, and if the company does not
resolve the cash flow problem then it may be unable to continue in operational existence.
Action to be taken:
– Discuss with the audit committee (if any) or those charged with governance of Norman Co:
The ethical problems raised by the non-payment of invoices, and a payment programme to secure cash payment in
stages if necessary, rather than demanding the total amount outstanding immediately.
– Notify the ethics partner of Smith & Co of the situation – the ethics partner should evaluate the ethical threat posed by
the situation and document the decision to continue to act for Norman Co.
– The documentation should include an evaluation of the monetary significance of the amount outstanding, as it will be
more difficult to justify the continuance of the audit appointment if the amount is significant.
– The ethics partner should ensure that a firm-wide policy is communicated to all audit managers requiring them to check
the payment of previous invoices before commencing new client work. This check should be documented.
– Consider an independent partner review of the working papers prepared for the 28 February 2008 audit.
– The audit working papers on going concern should be reviewed to ensure that sufficient evidence has been gathered to
support the audit opinion. Further procedures may be found to be necessary given the continued cash flow problems.
– Smith & Co have already acted to improve credit control by making a manager responsible for reviewing invoices and
monitoring subsequent cash collection. It is important that credit control procedures are quickly put into place to prevent
similar situations arising.


(c) During the year Albreda paid $0·1 million (2004 – $0·3 million) in fines and penalties relating to breaches of

health and safety regulations. These amounts have not been separately disclosed but included in cost of sales.

(5 marks)

Required:

For each of the above issues:

(i) comment on the matters that you should consider; and

(ii) state the audit evidence that you should expect to find,

in undertaking your review of the audit working papers and financial statements of Albreda Co for the year ended

30 September 2005.

NOTE: The mark allocation is shown against each of the three issues.

正确答案:
(c) Fines and penalties
(i) Matters
■ $0·1 million represents 5·6% of profit before tax and is therefore material. However, profit has fallen, and
compared with prior year profit it is less than 5%. So ‘borderline’ material in quantitative terms.
■ Prior year amount was three times as much and represented 13·6% of profit before tax.
■ Even though the payments may be regarded as material ‘by nature’ separate disclosure may not be necessary if,
for example, there are no external shareholders.
■ Treatment (inclusion in cost of sales) should be consistent with prior year (‘The Framework’/IAS 1 ‘Presentation of
Financial Statements’).
■ The reason for the fall in expense. For example, whether due to an improvement in meeting health and safety
regulations and/or incomplete recording of liabilities (understatement).
■ The reason(s) for the breaches. For example, Albreda may have had difficulty implementing new guidelines in
response to stricter regulations.
■ Whether expenditure has been adjusted for in the income tax computation (as disallowed for tax purposes).
■ Management’s attitude to health and safety issues (e.g. if it regards breaches as an acceptable operational practice
or cheaper than compliance).
■ Any references to health and safety issues in other information in documents containing audited financial
statements that might conflict with Albreda incurring these costs.
■ Any cost savings resulting from breaches of health and safety regulations would result in Albreda possessing
proceeds of its own crime which may be a money laundering offence.
(ii) Audit evidence
■ A schedule of amounts paid totalling $0·1 million with larger amounts being agreed to the cash book/bank
statements.
■ Review/comparison of current year schedule against prior year for any apparent omissions.
■ Review of after-date cash book payments and correspondence with relevant health and safety regulators (e.g. local
authorities) for liabilities incurred before 30 September 2005.
■ Notes in the prior year financial statements confirming consistency, or otherwise, of the lack of separate disclosure.
■ A ‘signed off’ review of ‘other information’ (i.e. directors’ report, chairman’s statement, etc).
■ Written management representation that there are no fines/penalties other than those which have been reflected in
the financial statements.


4 When a prominent football club, whose shares were listed, announced that it was to build a new stadium on land

near to its old stadium, opinion was divided. Many of the club’s fans thought it a good idea because it would be more

comfortable for them when watching games. A number of problems arose, however, when it was pointed out that the

construction of the new stadium and its car parking would have a number of local implications. The local government

authority said that building the stadium would involve diverting roads and changing local traffic flow, but that it would

grant permission to build the stadium if those issues could be successfully addressed. A number of nearby residents

complained that the new stadium would be too near their homes and that it would destroy the view from their gardens.

Helen Yusri, who spoke on behalf of the local residents, said that the residents would fight the planning application

through legal means if necessary. A nearby local inner-city wildlife reservation centre said that the stadium’s

construction might impact on local water levels and therefore upset the delicate balance of animals and plants in the

wildlife centre. A local school, whose pupils often visited the wildlife centre, joined in the opposition, saying that whilst

the school supported the building of a new stadium in principle, it had concerns about disruption to the wildlife centre.

The football club’s board was alarmed by the opposition to its planned new stadium as it had assumed that it would

be welcomed because the club had always considered itself a part of the local community. The club chairman said

that he wanted to maintain good relations with all local people if possible, but at the same time he owed it to the fans

and the club’s investors to proceed with the building of the new stadium despite local concerns.

Required:

(a) Define ‘stakeholder’ and explain the importance of identifying all the stakeholders in the stadium project.

(10 marks)

正确答案:
4 (a) Stakeholders
Definition
There are a number of definitions of a stakeholder. Freeman (1984), for example, defined a stakeholder in terms of any
organisation or person that can affect or be affected by the policies or activities of an entity. Hence stakeholding can result
from one of two directions: being able to affect and possibly influence an organisation or, conversely, being influenced by it.
Any engagement with an organisation in whom a stake is held may be voluntary or involuntary in nature.
Tutorial note: any definition of a stakeholder that identifies bi-directional influence will be equally valid.
Importance of identifying all stakeholders
Knowledge of the stakeholders in the stadium project is important for a number of reasons. This will involve surveying
stakeholders that can either affect or be affected by the building of the stadium. In some cases, stakeholders will be
bi-directional in their stakeholding (claim) upon the stadium project. Stakeholders in the stadium project include the local
government authority, the local residents, the wildlife centre, the local school and the football club’s fans.
Stakeholder identification is necessary to gain an understanding of the sources of risks and disruption. Some external
stakeholders, such as the local government authority, offer a risk to the project and knowledge of the nature of the claim made
upon the football club by the stakeholder will be important in risk assessment.
Stakeholder identification is important in terms of assessing the sources of influence over the objectives and outcomes for the
project (such as identified in the Mendelow model). In strategic analysis, stakeholder influence is assessed in terms of each
stakeholder’s power and interest, with higher power and higher interest combining to generate the highest influence. In the
case, it is likely that the fans are more influential on the club’s objectives than, say, the local wildlife centre, as they have
more economic power over the club.
It is necessary in order to identify areas of conflict and tension between stakeholders, especially relevant when it is likely that
stakeholders of influence will be in disagreement over the outcomes for the project. In this case, for example, the claims of
the football club board and the local residents are in conflict.
There is a moral case for knowledge of how decisions affect people both inside the organisation or (as is the case with the
stadium project) externally.


(c) You have just been advised of management’s intention to publish its yearly marketing report in the annual report

that will contain the financial statements for the year ending 31 December 2005. Extracts from the marketing

report include the following:

‘Shire Oil Co sponsors national school sports championships and the ‘Shire Ward’ at the national teaching

hospital. The company’s vision is to continue its investment in health and safety and the environment.

‘Our health and safety, security and environmental policies are of the highest standard in the energy sector. We

aim to operate under principles of no-harm to people and the environment.

‘Shire Oil Co’s main contribution to sustainable development comes from providing extra energy in a cleaner and

more socially responsible way. This means improving the environmental and social performance of our

operations. Regrettably, five employees lost their lives at work during the year.’

Required:

Suggest performance indicators that could reflect the extent to which Shire Oil Co’s social and environmental

responsibilities are being met, and the evidence that should be available to provide assurance on their

accuracy. (6 marks)

正确答案:
(c) Social and environmental responsibilities
Performance indicators
■ Absolute ($) and relative (%) level of investment in sports sponsorship, and funding to the Shire Ward.
■ Increasing number of championship events and participating schools/students as compared with prior year.
■ Number of medals/trophies sponsored at events and/or number awarded to Shire sponsored schools/students.
■ Number of patients treated (successfully) a week/month. Average bed occupancy (daily/weekly/monthly and cumulative
to date).
■ Staffing levels (e.g. of volunteers for sports events, Shire Ward staff and the company):
? ratio of starters to leavers/staff turnover;
? absenteeism (average number of days per person per annum).
1 Withdrawal of the new licence would not create a going concern issue.
2 May also be described as ‘exploration and evaluation’ costs or ‘discovery and assessment’.
■ Number of:
– breaches of health and safety regulations and environmental regulations;
– oil spills;
– accidents and employee fatalities;
– insurance claims.
Evidence
Tutorial note: As there is a wide range of performance indicators that candidates could suggest, there is always a wide range
of possible sources of audit evidence. As the same evidence may contribute to providing assurance on more than one
measure they are not tabulated here, to avoid duplication. However, candidates may justifiably adopt a tabular layout. Also
note, that where measures may be expressed as evidence (e.g. trophies awarded) marks should be awarded only once.
■ Actual level of investment ($) compared with budget and budget compared with prior period.
Tutorial note: Would expect actual to be at least greater than prior year if performance in these areas (health and
safety) has improved.
■ Physical evidence of favourable increases on prior year, for example:
? medals/cups sponsored;
? number of beds available.
■ Increase in favourable press coverage/reports of sponsored events. (Decrease in adverse press about
accidents/fatalities.)
■ Independent surveys (e.g. by marine conservation organisations, welfare groups, etc) comparing Shire favourably with
other oil producers.
■ A reduction in fines paid compared with budget (and prior year).
■ Reduction in legal fees and claims being settled as evidenced by fee notes and correspondence files.
■ Amounts settled on insurance claims and level of insurance cover as compared with prior period.


6 Ordan received a statement from one of its suppliers, Alta, showing a balance due of $3,980. The amount due

according to the payables ledger account of Alta in Ordan’s records was only $230.

Comparison of the statement and the ledger account revealed the following differences:

1 A cheque sent by Ordan for $270 has not been allowed for in Alta’s statement.

2 Alta has not allowed for goods returned by Ordan $180.

3 Ordan made a contra entry, reducing the amount due to Alta by $3,200, for a balance due from Alta in Ordan’s

receivables ledger. No such entry has been made in Alta’s records.

What difference remains between the two companies’ records after adjusting for these items?

A $460

B $640

C $6,500

D $100

正确答案:D
3,980 – 270 – 180 – 3,200 = 330 : difference 100


There has been significant divergence in practice over recognition of revenue mainly because International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) have contained limited guidance in certain areas. The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) as a result of the joint project with the US Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) has issued IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers. IFRS 15 sets out a five-step model, which applies to revenue earned from a contract with a customer with limited exceptions, regardless of the type of revenue transaction or the industry. Step one in the five-step model requires the identification of the contract with the customer and is critical for the purpose of applying the standard. The remaining four steps in the standard’s revenue recognition model are irrelevant if the contract does not fall within the scope of IFRS 15.

Required:

(a) (i) Discuss the criteria which must be met for a contract with a customer to fall within the scope of IFRS 15. (5 marks)

(ii) Discuss the four remaining steps which lead to revenue recognition after a contract has been identified as falling within the scope of IFRS 15. (8 marks)

(b) (i) Tang enters into a contract with a customer to sell an existing printing machine such that control of the printing machine vests with the customer in two years’ time. The contract has two payment options. The customer can pay $240,000 when the contract is signed or $300,000 in two years’ time when the customer gains control of the printing machine. The interest rate implicit in the contract is 11·8% in order to adjust for the risk involved in the delay in payment. However, Tang’s incremental borrowing rate is 5%. The customer paid $240,000 on 1 December 2014 when the contract was signed. (4 marks)

(ii) Tang enters into a contract on 1 December 2014 to construct a printing machine on a customer’s premises for a promised consideration of $1,500,000 with a bonus of $100,000 if the machine is completed within 24 months. At the inception of the contract, Tang correctly accounts for the promised bundle of goods and services as a single performance obligation in accordance with IFRS 15. At the inception of the contract, Tang expects the costs to be $800,000 and concludes that it is highly probable that a significant reversal in the amount of cumulative revenue recognised will occur. Completion of the printing machine is highly susceptible to factors outside of Tang’s influence, mainly issues with the supply of components.

At 30 November 2015, Tang has satisfied 65% of its performance obligation on the basis of costs incurred to date and concludes that the variable consideration is still constrained in accordance with IFRS 15. However, on 4 December 2015, the contract is modified with the result that the fixed consideration and expected costs increase by $110,000 and $60,000 respectively. The time allowable for achieving the bonus is extended by six months with the result that Tang concludes that it is highly probable that the bonus will be achieved and that the contract still remains a single performance obligation. Tang has an accounting year end of 30 November. (6 marks)

Required:

Discuss how the above two contracts should be accounted for under IFRS 15. (In the case of (b)(i), the discussion should include the accounting treatment up to 30 November 2016 and in the case of (b)(ii), the accounting treatment up to 4 December 2015.)

Note: The mark allocation is shown against each of the items above.

Professional marks will be awarded in question 4 for clarity and quality of presentation. (2 marks)

正确答案:

(a) (i) The definition of what constitutes a contract for the purpose of applying the standard is critical. The definition of contract is based on the definition of a contract in the USA and is similar to that in IAS 32 Financial Instruments: Presentation. A contract exists when an agreement between two or more parties creates enforceable rights and obligations between those parties. The agreement does not need to be in writing to be a contract but the decision as to whether a contractual right or obligation is enforceable is considered within the context of the relevant legal framework of a jurisdiction. Thus, whether a contract is enforceable will vary across jurisdictions. The performance obligation could include promises which result in a valid expectation that the entity will transfer goods or services to the customer even though those promises are not legally enforceable.

The first criteria set out in IFRS 15 is that the parties should have approved the contract and are committed to perform. their respective obligations. It would be questionable whether that contract is enforceable if this were not the case. In the case of oral or implied contracts, this may be difficult but all relevant facts and circumstances should be considered in assessing the parties’ commitment. The parties need not always be committed to fulfilling all of the obligations under a contract. IFRS 15 gives the example where a customer is required to purchase a minimum quantity of goods but past experience shows that the customer does not always do this and the other party does not enforce their contract rights. However, there needs to be evidence that the parties are substantially committed to the contract.

It is essential that each party’s rights and the payment terms can be identified regarding the goods or services to be transferred. This latter requirement is the key to determining the transaction price.

The contract must have commercial substance before revenue can be recognised, as without this requirement, entities might artificially inflate their revenue and it would be questionable whether the transaction has economic consequences. Further, it should be probable that the entity will collect the consideration due under the contract. An assessment of a customer’s credit risk is an important element in deciding whether a contract has validity but customer credit risk does not affect the measurement or presentation of revenue. The consideration may be different to the contract price because of discounts and bonus offerings. The entity should assess the ability of the customer to pay and the customer’s intention to pay the consideration. If a contract with a customer does not meet these criteria, the entity can continually re-assess the contract to determine whether it subsequently meets the criteria.

Two or more contracts which are entered into around the same time with the same customer may be combined and accounted for as a single contract, if they meet the specified criteria. The standard provides detailed requirements for contract modifications. A modification may be accounted for as a separate contract or a modification of the original contract, depending upon the circumstances of the case.

(ii) Step one in the five-step model requires the identification of the contract with the customer. After a contract has been determined to fall under IFRS 15, the following steps are required before revenue can be recognised.

Step two requires the identification of the separate performance obligations in the contract. This is often referred to as ’unbundling’, and is done at the beginning of a contract. The key factor in identifying a separate performance obligation is the distinctiveness of the good or service, or a bundle of goods or services. A good or service is distinct if the customer can benefit from the good or service on its own or together with other readily available resources and is separately identifiable from other elements of the contract. IFRS 15 requires a series of distinct goods or services which are substantially the same with the same pattern of transfer, to be regarded as a single performance obligation. A good or service, which has been delivered, may not be distinct if it cannot be used without another good or service which has not yet been delivered. Similarly, goods or services which are not distinct should be combined with other goods or services until the entity identifies a bundle of goods or services which is distinct. IFRS 15 provides indicators rather than criteria to determine when a good or service is distinct within the context of the contract. This allows management to apply judgement to determine the separate performance obligations which best reflect the economic substance of a transaction.

Step three requires the entity to determine the transaction price, which is the amount of consideration which an entity expects to be entitled to in exchange for the promised goods or services. This amount excludes amounts collected on behalf of a third party, for example, government taxes. An entity must determine the amount of consideration to which it expects to be entitled in order to recognise revenue.

The transaction price might include variable or contingent consideration. Variable consideration should be estimated as either the expected value or the most likely amount. Management should use the approach which it expects will best predict the amount of consideration and should be applied consistently throughout the contract. An entity can only include variable consideration in the transaction price to the extent that it is highly probable that a subsequent change in the estimated variable consideration will not result in a significant revenue reversal. If it is not appropriate to include all of the variable consideration in the transaction price, the entity should assess whether it should include part of the variable consideration. However, this latter amount still has to pass the ’revenue reversal’ test.

Additionally, an entity should estimate the transaction price taking into account non-cash consideration, consideration payable to the customer and the time value of money if a significant financing component is present. The latter is not required if the time period between the transfer of goods or services and payment is less than one year. If an entity anticipates that it may ultimately accept an amount lower than that initially promised in the contract due to, for example, past experience of discounts given, then revenue would be estimated at the lower amount with the collectability of that lower amount being assessed. Subsequently, if revenue already recognised is not collectable, impairment losses should be taken to profit or loss.

Step four requires the allocation of the transaction price to the separate performance obligations. The allocation is based on the relative standalone selling prices of the goods or services promised and is made at inception of the contract. It is not adjusted to reflect subsequent changes in the standalone selling prices of those goods or services. The best evidence of standalone selling price is the observable price of a good or service when the entity sells that good or service separately. If that is not available, an estimate is made by using an approach which maximises the use of observable inputs. For example, expected cost plus an appropriate margin or the assessment of market prices for similar goods or services adjusted for entity-specific costs and margins or in limited circumstances a residual approach. When a contract contains more than one distinct performance obligation, an entity allocates the transaction price to each distinct performance obligation on the basis of the standalone selling price.

Where the transaction price includes a variable amount and discounts, consideration needs to be given as to whether these amounts relate to all or only some of the performance obligations in the contract. Discounts and variable consideration will typically be allocated proportionately to all of the performance obligations in the contract. However, if certain conditions are met, they can be allocated to one or more separate performance obligations.

Step five requires revenue to be recognised as each performance obligation is satisfied. An entity satisfies a performance obligation by transferring control of a promised good or service to the customer, which could occur over time or at a point in time. The definition of control includes the ability to prevent others from directing the use of and obtaining the benefits from the asset. A performance obligation is satisfied at a point in time unless it meets one of three criteria set out in IFRS 15. Revenue is recognised in line with the pattern of transfer.

If an entity does not satisfy its performance obligation over time, it satisfies it at a point in time and revenue will be recognised when control is passed at that point in time. Factors which may indicate the passing of control include the present right to payment for the asset or the customer has legal title to the asset or the entity has transferred physical possession of the asset.

(b) (i) The contract contains a significant financing component because of the length of time between when the customer pays for the asset and when Tang transfers the asset to the customer, as well as the prevailing interest rates in the market. A contract with a customer which has a significant financing component should be separated into a revenue component (for the notional cash sales price) and a loan component. Consequently, the accounting for a sale arising from a contract which has a significant financing component should be comparable to the accounting for a loan with the same features. An entity should use the discount rate which would be reflected in a separate financing transaction between the entity and its customer at contract inception. The interest rate implicit in the transaction may be different from the rate to be used to discount the cash flows, which should be the entity’s incremental borrowing rate. IFRS 15 would therefore dictate that the rate which should be used in adjusting the promised consideration is 5%, which is the entity’s incremental borrowing rate, and not 11·8%.

Tang would account for the significant financing component as follows:

Recognise a contract liability for the $240,000 payment received on 1 December 2014 at the contract inception:

Dr Cash $240,000
Cr Contract liability $240,000

During the two years from contract inception (1 December 2014) until the transfer of the printing machine, Tang adjusts the amount of consideration and accretes the contract liability by recognising interest on $240,000 at 5% for two years.

Year to 30 November 2015
Dr Interest expense $12,000
Cr Contract liability $12,000

Contract liability would stand at $252,000 at 30 November 2015.

Year to 30 November 2016
Dr Interest expense $12,600
Cr Contract liability $12,600

Recognition of contract revenue on transfer of printing machine at 30 November 2016 of $264,600 by debiting contract liability and crediting revenue with this amount.

(ii) Tang accounts for the promised bundle of goods and services as a single performance obligation satisfied over time in accordance with IFRS 15. At the inception of the contract, Tang expects the following:

Transaction price $1,500,000
Expected costs $800,000
Expected profit (46·7%) $700,000

At contract inception, Tang excludes the $100,000 bonus from the transaction price because it cannot conclude that it is highly probable that a significant reversal in the amount of cumulative revenue recognised will not occur. Completion of the printing machine is highly susceptible to factors outside the entity’s influence. By the end of the first year, the entity has satisfied 65% of its performance obligation on the basis of costs incurred to date. Costs incurred to date are therefore $520,000 and Tang reassesses the variable consideration and concludes that the amount is still constrained. Therefore at 30 November 2015, the following would be recognised:

Revenue $975,000
Costs $520,000
Gross profit $455,000

However, on 4 December 2015, the contract is modified. As a result, the fixed consideration and expected costs increase by $110,000 and $60,000, respectively. The total potential consideration after the modification is $1,710,000 which is $1,610,000 fixed consideration + $100,000 completion bonus. In addition, the allowable time for achieving the bonus is extended by six months with the result that Tang concludes that it is highly probable that including the bonus in the transaction price will not result in a significant reversal in the amount of cumulative revenue recognised in accordance with IFRS 15. Therefore the bonus of $100,000 can be included in the transaction price. Tang also concludes that the contract remains a single performance obligation. Thus,Tang accounts for the contract modification as if it were part of the original contract. Therefore, Tang updates its estimates of costs and revenue as follows:

Tang has satisfied 60·5% of its performance obligation ($520,000 actual costs incurred compared to $860,000 total expected costs). The entity recognises additional revenue of $59,550 [(60·5% of $1,710,000) – $975,000 revenue recognised to date] at the date of the modification as a cumulative catch-up adjustment. As the contract amendment took place after the year end, the additional revenue would not be treated as an adjusting event.


5 Your manager has heard of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory and how it has some relevance to motivational techniques.

Required:

(a) Explain Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory. (10 marks)

正确答案:

5 The way in which managers’ duties are undertaken can significantly influence the satisfaction that employees derive from their work. Abraham Maslow suggested that individuals have a hierarchy of personal needs which are identifiable, universally applicable and can be satisfied in the workplace. Understanding this concept provides guidance to management as to the appropriateness of
motivational techniques.
(a) Maslow’s theory of motivation is a content theory. Its basic idea is that each individual has a set of needs which have to be
satisfied in a set order of priority.
Maslow suggested that individuals have five needs:
Self-actualisation
(or self fulfilment)
Esteem needs
(or ego)
Social needs
Safety needs
Physiological needs
These needs are arranged in a hierarchy of importance and movement is upwards, from physiological needs to selfactualisation.Any individual will always want more; each need must be satisfied before the next is sought. However – andcritically so far as motivation in the workplace is concerned – a satisfied need is no longer a motivator.
The theory is usually presented in the shape of a triangle, with physiological needs at its base and self-actualisation at itsapex. The triangle shape has a clear significance. As an individual moves up toward the apex, the needs thin out, that isphysiological needs are far greater than self-actualisation needs. For many individuals, reaching social needs is often thehighest need to be satisfied. The theory is sometimes presented as a staircase; again with self-actualisation at the top. Thissecond diagrammatic form. reflects the application of the theory to more modern situations, where it can reasonably beassumed that those within the organisation have already achieved physiological and safety needs. For such individuals, socialand esteem needs may well be greater.
Physiological needs are the basic survival needs which, although part of the theory, probably have less relevance today. Theseneeds are usually seen as food, shelter (which is sometimes noted as a safety need), warmth and clothing.
Safety needs are the desire for security, order, certainty and predictability in life and freedom from threat. The above two so-called ‘lower order needs’ dominate until satisfied.
Social needs are the gregarious needs of mankind, the need for friendship, relationships and affection. This is often seen as the desire to be part of a family.
Esteem needs are the desire for recognition and respect, often associated with status, especially in the modern world.
Self-actualisation (self fulfilment) is the ultimate goal. Once this state is achieved the individual has fulfilled personal potential.
However, later work by Maslow has suggested that there are two additional needs; freedom of enquiry (free speech and justice) and knowledge (the need to explore and learn). These additional needs are a further development of social needs and recognise the changing nature of modern life.


(ii) The shares held in Date Inc and the dividend income received from that company. (7 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Shares held in Date Inc and the related dividend income
Degrouping charge
There will be a degrouping charge in Nikau Ltd in the year ending 31 March 2008 in respect of the shares in Date Inc.
This is because Nikau Ltd has left the Facet Group within six years of the no gain, no loss transfer of the shares whilst
still owning them.
Nikau Ltd is treated as if it has sold the shares in Date Inc for their market value as at the time of the no gain, no loss
transfer. This will give rise to a gain, ignoring indexation allowance, of £201,000 (£338,000 – £137,000).
This gain will give rise to additional corporation tax of £60,300 (£201,000 x 30%).
Controlled foreign company
Date Inc is a controlled foreign company. The profits of such a company are normally attributed to its UK resident
shareholders such that they are subject to UK corporation tax.
However, none of the profits of Date Inc will be attributed to Nikau Ltd because Date Inc distributes more than 90%
(£115,000/£120,000 = 95·8%) of its chargeable profits to its shareholders.
Dividend income
Nikau Ltd is a UK resident company and is therefore subject to corporation tax on its worldwide income.
The dividend income will be grossed up in respect of the withholding tax giving rise to taxable income of £39,792
(£38,200 x 100/96). There is no underlying tax as there are no taxes on income or capital profits in Palladia.
The corporation tax of £11,938 (£39,792 x 30%) will be reduced by unilateral double tax relief equal to the withholding
tax suffered of £1,592 (£39,792 x 4%) resulting in corporation tax due of £10,346 (£11,938 – £1,592).


(b) (i) Calculate Amanda’s income tax payable for the tax year 2006/07; (11 marks)

正确答案:

 


21年ACCA/CAT历年真题和解答9章 第9章


(ii) The recoverability of the deferred tax asset. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Principal audit procedures – recoverability of deferred tax asset
– Obtain a copy of Bluebell Co’s current tax computation and deferred tax calculations and agree figures to any
relevant tax correspondence and/or underlying accounting records.
– Develop an independent expectation of the estimate to corroborate the reasonableness of management’s estimate.
– Obtain forecasts of profitability and agree that there is sufficient forecast taxable profit available for the losses to be
offset against. Evaluate the assumptions used in the forecast against business understanding. In particular consider
assumptions regarding the growth rate of taxable profit in light of the underlying detrimental trend in profit before
tax.
– Assess the time period it will take to generate sufficient profits to utilise the tax losses. If it is going to take a number
of years to generate such profits, it may be that the recognition of the asset should be restricted.
– Using tax correspondence, verify that there is no restriction on the ability of Bluebell Co to carry the losses forward
and to use the losses against future taxable profits.
Tutorial note: in many tax jurisdictions losses can only be carried forward to be utilised against profits generated
from the same trade. Although in the scenario there is no evidence of such a change in trade, or indeed any kind
of restriction on the use of losses, it is still a valid audit procedure to verify that this is the case


2 (a) Discuss the nature of the financial objectives that may be set in a not-for-profit organisation such as a charity

or a hospital. (8 marks)

正确答案:

2 (a) In the case of a not-for-profit (NFP) organisation, the limit on the services that can be provided is the amount of funds that
are available in a given period. A key financial objective for an NFP organisation such as a charity is therefore to raise as
much funds as possible. The fund-raising efforts of a charity may be directed towards the public or to grant-making bodies.
In addition, a charity may have income from investments made from surplus funds from previous periods. In any period,
however, a charity is likely to know from previous experience the amount and timing of the funds available for use. The same
is true for an NFP organisation funded by the government, such as a hospital, since such an organisation will operate under
budget constraints or cash limits. Whether funded by the government or not, NFP organisations will therefore have the
financial objective of keeping spending within budget, and budgets will play an important role in controlling spending and in
specifying the level of services or programmes it is planned to provide.
Since the amount of funding available is limited, NFP organisations will seek to generate the maximum benefit from available
funds. They will obtain resources for use by the organisation as economically as possible: they will employ these resources
efficiently, minimising waste and cutting back on any activities that do not assist in achieving the organisation’s non-financial
objectives; and they will ensure that their operations are directed as effectively as possible towards meeting their objectives.
The goals of economy, efficiency and effectiveness are collectively referred to as value for money (VFM). Economy is
concerned with minimising the input costs for a given level of output. Efficiency is concerned with maximising the outputs
obtained from a given level of input resources, i.e. with the process of transforming economic resources into desires services.
Effectiveness is concerned with the extent to which non-financial organisational goals are achieved.
Measuring the achievement of the financial objective of VFM is difficult because the non-financial goals of NFP organisations
are not quantifiable and so not directly measurable. However, current performance can be compared to historic performance
to ascertain the extent to which positive change has occurred. The availability of the healthcare provided by a hospital, for
example, can be measured by the time that patients have to wait for treatment or for an operation, and waiting times can be
compared year on year to determine the extent to which improvements have been achieved or publicised targets have been
met.

Lacking a profit motive, NFP organisations will have financial objectives that relate to the effective use of resources, such as
achieving a target return on capital employed. In an organisation funded by the government from finance raised through
taxation or public sector borrowing, this financial objective will be centrally imposed.


Under certain circumstances, profits made on transactions between members of a group need to be eliminated from the consolidated financial statements under IFRS.

Which of the following statements about intra-group profits in consolidated financial statements is/are correct?

(i) The profit made by a parent on the sale of goods to a subsidiary is only realised when the subsidiary sells the goods to a third party

(ii) Eliminating intra-group unrealised profits never affects non-controlling interests

(iii) The profit element of goods supplied by the parent to an associate and held in year-end inventory must be eliminated in full

A.(i) only

B.(i) and (ii)

C.(ii) and (iii)

D.(iii) only

正确答案:A

(i) is the only correct elimination required by IFRS.


(b) Explain the matters that should be considered when planning the nature and scope of the examination of

Cusiter Co’s forecast balance sheet and income statement as prepared for the bank. (7 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Matters to be considered
Tutorial note: Candidates at this level must appreciate that the matters to be considered when planning the nature and
scope of the examination are not the same matters to be considered when deciding whether or not to accept an
engagement. The scenario clearly indicates that the assignment is being undertaken by the current auditor rendering any
‘pre-engagement’/‘professional etiquette’ considerations irrelevant to answering this question.
This PFI has been prepared to show an external user, the bank, the financial consequences of Cusiter’s plans to help the bank
in making an investment decision. If Cusiter is successful in its loan application the PFI provides a management tool against
which the results of investing in the plant and equipment can be measured.
The PFI is unpublished rather than published. That is, it is prepared at the specific request of a third party, the bank. It will
not be published to users of financial information in general.
The auditor’s report on the PFI will provide only negative assurance as to whether the assumptions provide a reasonable basis
for the PFI and an opinion whether the PFI is:
■ properly prepared on the basis of the assumptions; and
■ presented in accordance with the relevant financial reporting framework.
The nature of the engagement is an examination to obtain evidence concerning:
■ the reasonableness and consistency of assumptions made;
■ proper preparation (on the basis of stated assumptions); and
■ consistent presentation (with historical financial statements, using appropriate accounting principles).
Such an examination is likely to take the form. of inquiry, analytical procedures and corroboration.
The period of time covered by the prospective financial information is two years. The assumptions for 2008 are likely to be
more speculative than for 2007, particularly in relation to the impact on earnings, etc of the investment in new plant and
equipment.
The forecast for the year to 31 December 2007 includes an element of historical financial information (because only part of
this period is in the future) hence actual evidence should be available to verify the first three months of the forecast (possibly
more since another three-month period will expire at the end of the month).
Cusiter management’s previous experience in preparing PFI will be relevant. For example, in making accounting estimates
(e.g. for provisions, impairment losses, etc) or preparing cash flow forecasts (e.g. in support of the going concern assertion).
The basis of preparation of the forecast. For example, the extent to which it comprises:
■ proforma financial information (i.e. historical financial information adjusted for the effects of the planned loan and capital
expenditure transaction);
■ new information and assumptions about future performance (e.g. the operating capacity of the new equipment, sales
generated, etc).
The nature and scope of any standards/guidelines under which the PFI has been prepared is likely to assist the auditor in
discharging their responsibilities to report on it. Also, ISAE 3400 The Examination of Prospective Financial Information,
establishes standards and provides guidance on engagements to examine and report on PFI including examination
procedures.
The planned nature and scope of the examination is likely to take into account the time and fee budgets for the assignments
as adjusted for any ‘overlap’ with audit work. For example, the examination of the PFI is likely to draw on the auditor’s
knowledge of the business obtained in auditing the financial statements to 31 December 2006. Analytical procedures carried
out in respect of the PFI may provide evidence relevant to the 31 December 2007 audit.


(iii) whether you agree or not with the statement of the production director. (3 marks)

正确答案:
(iii) ‘If we implement a reward scheme then it is bound to be beneficial for BGL’.
The statement of the manufacturing director is not necessarily correct. Indeed there is much evidence to support the
proposition that the existence of performance-related reward schemes can encourage dysfunctional behaviour. This often
manifests itself in the form. of ‘budgetary slack’ which is incorporated into budgets in anticipation of subsequent cuts by
higher levels of management or to make subsequent performance look better.


(b) Describe the potential benefits for Hugh Co in choosing to have a financial statement audit. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(b) There are several benefits for Hugh Co in choosing a voluntary financial statement audit.
An annual audit will ensure that any material mistakes made by the part-qualified accountant in preparing the year end
financial statements will be detected. This is important as the directors will be using the year end accounts to review their
progress in the first year of trading and will need reliable figures to assess performance. An audit will give the directors comfort
that the financial statements are a sound basis for making business decisions.
Accurate first year figures will also enable more effective budgeting and forecasting, which will be crucial if rapid growth is to
be achieved.
The auditors are likely to use the quarterly management accounts as part of normal audit procedures. The auditors will be
able to advise Monty Parkes of any improvements that could be made to the management accounts, for example, increased
level of detail, more frequent reporting. Better quality management accounts will help the day-to-day running of the business
and enable a speedier response to any problems arising during the year.
As a by-product of the audit, a management letter (report to those charged with governance) will be produced, identifying
weaknesses and making recommendations on areas such as systems and controls which will improve the smooth running of
the business.
It is likely that Hugh Co will require more bank funding in order to expand, and it is likely that the bank would like to see
audited figures for review, before deciding on further finance. It will be easier and potentially cheaper to raise finance from
other providers with an audited set of financial statements.
As the business deals in cash sales, and retails small, luxury items there is a high risk of theft of assets. The external audit
can act as both a deterrent and a detective control, thus reducing the risk of fraud and resultant detrimental impact on the
financial statements.
Accurate financial statements will be the best basis for tax assessment and tax planning. An audit opinion will enhance the
credibility of the figures.
If the business grows rapidly, then it is likely that at some point in the future, the audit exemption limit will be exceeded and
thus an audit will become mandatory.
Choosing to have an audit from the first year of incorporation will reduce potential errors carried down to subsequent periods
and thus avoid qualifications of opening balances.


(b) Determine whether the factoring company’s offer can be recommended on financial grounds. Assume a

working year of 365 days and base your analysis on financial information for 2006. (8 marks)

正确答案:


(ii) The sales director has suggested to Damian, that to encourage the salesmen to accept the new arrangement,

the company should increase the value of the accessories of their own choice that can be fitted to the low

emission cars.

State, giving reasons, whether or not Damian should implement the sales director’s suggestion.

(2 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) Damian should not agree to the sales director’s suggestion. The salesmen will each make a significant annual income
tax saving under the proposal, whereas the company will also be offset (at least partly) by the reduction in the dealer’s
bulk discount. Further, 100% first year allowance tax incentive for low emission cars is not guaranteed beyond 31 March
2008, and it is unlikely that any change in policy with regards to the provision of additional accessories will, once
implemented, be easily reversible.


(b) With reference to CF Co, explain the ethical and other professional issues raised. (9 marks)

正确答案:
(b) There are several issues that must be addressed as a matter of urgency:
Extra work must be planned to discover the extent of the breakdown in internal controls that occurred during the year. It is
important to decide whether the errors were isolated, or continued through the accounting period and whether similar errors
have occurred in other areas e.g. cash receipts from existing customers or cash payments. A review of the working papers of
the internal audit team should be carried out as soon as possible. The materiality of the errors should be documented.
Errors discovered in the accounting systems will have serious implications for the planned audit approach of new customer
deposits. Nate & Co must plan to expand audit testing on this area as control risk is high. Cash deposits will represent a
significant class of transaction in CF Co. A more detailed substantive approach than used in prior year audits may be needed
in this material area if limited reliance can be placed on internal controls.
A combination of the time spent investigating the reasons for the errors, their materiality, and a detailed substantive audit on
this area means that the audit is likely to take longer than previously anticipated. This may have cost and recoverability
implications. Extra staff may need to be assigned to the audit team, and the deadline for completion of audit procedures may
need to be extended. This will need to be discussed with CF Co.
Due to the increased audit risk, Nate & Co should consider increasing review procedures throughout the audit. In addition CF
Co is likely to be a highly regulated company as it operates in financial services, increasing possible attention focused on the
audit opinion. These two factors indicate that a second partner review would be recommended.
A separate issue is that of Jin Sayed offering advice to the internal audit team. The first problem raised is that of quality control.
A new and junior member of the audit team should be subject to close direction and supervision which does not appear to
have been the case during this assignment.
Secondly, Jin Sayed should not have offered advice to the internal audit team. On being made aware of the errors, he should
have alerted a senior member of the audit team, who then would have decided the action to be taken. This implies that he
does not understand the limited extent of his responsibilities as a junior member of the audit team. Nate & Co may wish to
review the training provided to new members of staff, as it should be made clear when matters should be reported to a senior,
and when matters can be dealt with by the individual.
Thirdly, Jin Sayed must be questioned to discover what exactly he advised the internal audit team to do. Despite his academic
qualification, he has little practical experience in the financial information systems of CF Co. He may have given inappropriate
advice, and it will be crucial to confirm that no action has been taken by the internal audit team.
The audit partner should consider if Nate & Co are at risk because of the advice that has been provided by Jin Sayed. As he
is a member of the audit team, his advice would be considered by the client as advice offered by Nate & Co, and the partner
should ascertain by discussion with the client whether this advice has been acted upon.
Finally Nate & Co should consider whether as a firm they could provide the review of the financial information technology
system, as requested by CF Co. IFAC’s Code of Ethics, and ACCA’s Code of Ethics and Conduct places restrictions on the
provision of non-audit services. Nate & Co must be clear in what exactly the ‘review’ will involve.
Providing a summary of weaknesses in the system, with appropriate recommendations is considered part of normal audit
procedures. However, given the errors that have arisen in the year, CF Co may require Nate & Co to design and implement
changes to the system. This would constitute a self-review threat and should only be considered if significant safeguards are
put in place, for example, using a separate team to provide the non-audit service and/or having a second partner review of
the work.